Bộ đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Tập 2 - Nguyễn Thị Thu Huế

Nội dung text: Bộ đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Tập 2 - Nguyễn Thị Thu Huế

1. Part I SECOND SEMETER 2 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
2. NGUYỄN THỊ THU HUẾ BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN NHÀ XUẤT BẢN ĐẠI HỌC QUỐC GIA HÀ NỘI
3. LỜI NÓI ĐẦU Các em học sinh thân mến! Nhằm giúp các em học sinh ôn tập và hệ thống hóa kiến thức đã học trong sách giáo khoa và cũng là tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích cho các thầy cô giáo trong quá trình giảng dạy môn Tiếng Anh, chúng tôi biên soạn bộ sách “Bộ đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh lớp 6” theo chương trình SGK thí điểm mới nhất của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo. Nội dung cuốn sách hoàn toàn bám sát chương trình SGK và được thể hiện dưới các đề kiểm tra trắc nghiệm và tự luận. Thông qua việc làm các bài kiểm tra, các em học sinh có thể xác định mức độ hiểu bài và các kỹ năng cần phải củng cố thêm. Bộ đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 6 gồm 2 tập. Liên hệ Zalo 0988 166 193 để xem tài liệu TẬP 2 GỒM 2 PHẦN: PART I: SECOND SEMESTER A. Đề kiểm tra 15 phút học kỳ II: 12 đề B. Đề kiểm tra 45 phút số 1 học kỳ II: 5 đề C. Đề kiểm tra 45 phút số 2 học kỳ II: 5 đề D. Đề kiểm tra học kỳ II: 5 đề PART II: GRAMMAR PRACTICE ENGLISH 6 Cuốn sách có đáp án chi tiết dành cho từng phần cụ thể. Ngoài ra sách có phần Tapescripts ở cuối cuốn sách rất tiện để các em học sinh đối chiếu và theo dõi kết quả học tập. Nội dung phần nghe trong sách là link tải đĩa CD (đính kèm trên bìa sách) phát âm chuẩn tiếng Anh của người bản ngữ. Các em có thể sử dụng điện thoại smartphone để quét mã QR và tải các bài học một cách nhanh chóng và thuận tiện. Chúng tôi tin rằng CD này sẽ hỗ trợ các em rất nhiều trong quá trình rèn luyện kỹ năng giao tiếp tiếng Anh của mình. Chúng tôi hy vọng rằng bộ sách Bộ đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 6 sẽ là tài liệu hữu ích để các em có thể tự học và đánh giá kết quả học tập của mình đồng thời làm quen với các bài kiểm tra trong năm học. 3
4. Part I SECOND SEMETER Part I Second semester A 15- MINUTE TEST ĐỀ SỐ 1 I. Choose the best answer. 1. ___ does the movie start? At 9 o ’clock. A. Where B. What C. Which D. When 2. ___ are you still watching television? A. Why B. What C. Where D. Who 3. ___ did you spend your holiday in Ha Noi? - One week A. How many B. How much C. How long D. How often 4. ___ pen is this? Can I borrow it? B. Whom A. Whose B. Whom C. Who D. Which 5. ___ do you usually eat lunch? At noon. A. Which B. Who C. What D. When 6. ___ does your father work? At City Hall. A. Which B. Where C. What D. How 7. ___ usually gets up the earliest in your family? A. Which B. Who C. What D. How 8. ___ do you think of this hotel? It’s pretty good. A. Which B. Who C. What D. How 9. ___ does your father work at that company? Because it’s near our house. A. Which B. Why C. What D. How 10. ___ picture do you prefer, this one or that one? A. Which B. Who C. What D. How II. Make question for the underlined part in each sentence. 1. She goes to the zoo twice a year. 2. They can meet in front of the theater at 7 o’clock. 3. Peter likes the comedy because it makes him laugh. 4. The documentary lasts thirty- five minutes. 4 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
5. PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 Part II ĐỀ SỐ 2 I. Complete the sentences with and, so, but or because. 1. I didn’t feel well ___ I stayed at home. 2. I want a new TV ___ the one I have now is broken. 3. I had to work on Saturday ___ I couldn’t go to John’s party. 4. My name is Jim ___ I’m your new teacher. 5. I was cold ___ I turned on the heater. 6. We’ll have to go shopping ___ we have nothing for dinner. 7. The history test was difficult ___ the English one was easy. 8. We didn’t go to the beach yesterday ___ it was raining. 9. She likes swimming ___ jogging. 10. We were late ___ there was an accident. Liên hệ Zalo 0988 166 193 để xem tài liệu II. Match the sentence halves, writing the answer in each blank. 1. We wanted to go to the show A. because they are quick and easy. 2. I often make omelets B. although they are not very healthy. 3. Shall we go to the cinema C. and watch that film you were talking about. 4. Burgers are very tasty D. but there weren’t any seats left. 5. My neighbours are friendly E. or at the football match? 6. Do you know if he’s at home F. because the laughs in his sleep. 7. Pick me up early, please G. but they are noisy. 8. We know he has great dreams H. so that we don’t get there late. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 ĐỀ SỐ 3 Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. 1. I (not be) ___ very happy yesterday. 2. I (buy) ___ a ticket for the football match yesterday. 3. She (go) ___ to Australia in 1994 and she liked it very much. 4. My father usually (like) ___ his steak well- done. 5. She (write) ___ to her friend Kevin now. 6. Yesterday, he (play) ___ football with Julie. 7. I (speak) ___ to my uncle on the phone now. 8. Mary (buy) ___ a present for Camilla two days ago. 9. My mother (not be) ___ there yesterday. 5
6. Part II PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 10. I (not visit) ___ my parents last week. 11. Your mother (drive) ___ you to school? 12. He often (bring) ___ sweets for the pupils. 13. I (not work) ___ in this supermarket when I was 16. 14. He (leave) ___ five minutes ago. 15. I don’t like that man because he often (laugh) ___ at me. 16. My friend (talk) ___ a lot every day. 17. The man (drive) ___ to the supermarket last weekend. 18. Daisy (wear) ___ a very beautiful dress last night. 19. Nhung (write) ___ to her grandparents very often last year. 20. The teacher usually (give) ___ the students a lot of homework at the weekend. ĐỀ SỐ 4 I. Write the imperative sentences using the cues given. 1. ___ upstairs. (to go) 2. ___ in this lake. (not/ to swim) 3. ___ your homework. (to do) 4. ___ football in the yard. (not/ to play) 5. ___ your teeth. (to brush) 6. ___ during the lesson. (not/ to talk) 7. ___ the animals in the zoo. (not/ to feed) 8. ___ the instructions. (to read) 9. ___ late for school. (not/ to be) 10. ___ your mobiles. (to switch off) II. Choose the best answer. 1. They ___ the bus yesterday. A. don’t catch B. weren’t catch C. didn’t catch D. not catch 2. My sister ___ home late last night. A. comes B. come C. came D. was come 3. My father ___ tired when I ___ home. A. was - got B. is - get C. was - getted D. were - got 4. What ___ you ___ two days ago? A. do - do B. did - did C. do - did D. did - do 5. Where ___ your family ___ on the summer holiday last year? A. do - go B. does - go C. did - go D. did - went 6. We ___ David in town a few days ago. A. did see B. was saw C. did saw D. saw 7. It was cold, so I ___ the window. 6 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
7. PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 Part II A. shut B. was shut C. am shut D. shutted 8. I ___ to the cinema three times last week. A. was go B. went C. did go D. goes B THE FIRST 45-MINUTE TEST ĐỀ SỐ 1 I. Circle the word (A, B, C or D) with an underlined part pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. nothing B. then C. them D. those 2. A. bathroom B. sixth C. thumb D. father 3. A. please B. feature C. bear D. beat 4. A. fear B. near C. hear D. treat 5. A. pea B. leather C. tea D. peanut II. Choose the best answer. 1. The weather was nice ___ it was a bit cold. A. and B. but C. so D. because 2. It was raining ___ I took my umbrella. A. or B. but C. so D. although 3. We often play soccer with our friends in the park ___ Sunday afternoon. A. in B. at C. with D. on 4. ___ do Thuy and Hoa go to the cinema? - Once a month. A. How long B. When C. How often D. How many 5. The Red River is ___ river in the North of Vietnam. A. longer B. the longest C. longest D. the longer Liên hệ Zalo 0988 166 193 để xem tài liệu 6. ___ “The King of Football”? A. I don’t know B. Do you know Pele? C. What time? D. What’s that? 7. “How often are the Olympic games held?” ___ A. Every four years. B. Four years. C. In 2009 D. Every year. 8. “Which sport is held in a ring?” ___ A. Swimming. B. Basketball. C. Sumo, bull fighting and boxing. D. Volleyball. 9. ___ is your favorite program? A. Where B. Which C. What D. Who 7
8. Part II PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 10. Last summer, we ___ a good time in Ha Long Bay. A. go B. have C. had D. were III.Put the verbs in brackets into a suitable tense. 1. You (clean) ___ the room every day? 2. Anna (talk) ___ on the phone to her penpal. 3. You ever (be) ___ to Paris, Mr. Lam? 4. Vinh usually (go) ___ to school on foot. 5. Mrs. Nhung (not take) ___ the bus to work yesterday. 6. Peter never (see) ___ High School Musical before. 7. You (meet) ___ Hoang and Phuong two days ago? 8. They (not open) ___ the shop on Saturdays and Sundays. IV. Read the following text and fill each blank with a suitable word. Children prefer watching TV to reading books (1) ___ their free time. They (2) ___ two or three hours a day watching TV. Television has its good sides, because it is both entertaining (3) ___ educational. However, watching too much TV (4) ___ bad (5) ___ children’s health, as it keeps children from taking part in other (6) ___ activities. Therefore, children should (7) ___ watch TV more (8) ___ five hours a day. V. Read the following passage about Michael Jordan. Circle A, B or C to answer each question. Michael Jordan was born on February 17, 1963. He is considered one of the best basketball players ever. He led the Chicago Bulls to six National Basketball Association championships, and won the NBA’s Most Valuable Player Award five times. Jordan started studying at the University of North Carolina (UNC) in 1981. He soon became an important member of the school’s basketball team. In 1982, With Jordan scoring the final basket, the team defeated Georgetown University and became the champion. He was the College Player of the Year in 1983 and in 1984. In 1984, Jordan became a member of the U.S. Olympic basketball team. The team won the gold medal that year. 1. What team did Michael Jordan play for? A. Chicago Bulls B. National Basketball Association C. Georgetown University 2. How many times did Michael Jordan win the title “College Player of the Year”? A. Six times B. Five times C. Two times 3. When did Michael Jordan start playing for the University of North Carolina? A. 1963 B. 1981 C. 1984 4. What does “the team” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. University of North Carolina B. Georgetown University C. College Player 8 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
9. PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 Part II 5. What is the best title of this passage? A. Michael Jordan: life and career B. Michael Jordan: the best basketball player C. Michael Jordan: a professional basketball player VI. Make questions for the underlined parts in the following sentences. 1. Peter is reading books in the bedroom. ? 2. They are playing in the park. ? 3. We mustn’t drink and eat in the classroom. ? 4. We sometimes stay up late on Saturday night. ? 5. Many girls do aerobics at the weekend. ? LISTENING Part I. Listen and fill in the missing word. (Track 31) 1. I often play (1) ___ with my classmates in the school yard. 2. Thanh goes swimming (2) ___ times a week in summer. 3. Our teacher is a big fan of the Manchester (3) ___ team. 4. I like swimming and (4) ___ in the countryside. 5. My father taught me to (5) ___ when I was a child. Part II. Listen to the passage and decide whether the sentences are True or False. (Track 32) 1. Tom, Alice and Linda like the same sports. ___ 2. Tom plays soccer every day. ___ 3. Alice plays badminton three times a week. ___ 4. Linda does aerobics twice a week. ___ 5. Alice and Linda play sports at home. ___ 9
10. Part II PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 ĐỀ SỐ 2 I. Choose the best answer. 1. Would you like tea ___ hot chocolate for your breakfast? A. and B. but C. or D. so 2. Our car is old, ___ it drives beautifully. A. and B. but C. or D. so 3. The football match is on at 2 am ___ I can’t watch. A. so B. although C. but D. now 4. My father likes watching sports ___ on VTV3. A. matches B. channels C. match D. athletes 5. ___ draw on the walls and tables, please. A. Do B. Don’t C. Should D. Shouldn’t 6. Nam plays sports very often, so he looks very ___. A. sport B. sports C. sporty D. sporting 7. Last summer, I ___ fishing with my uncle in the afternoon A. go B. went C. goes D. going 8. I like watching football matches, but I am not very good ___ playing football. A. at B. in C. on D. for 9. Team sports are sometimes called ___ sports. A. compete B. competition C. competitor D. competitive 10. Find the word which has a different sound in the underlined part. A. channel B. game C. national D. relax 11. Find the word which has a different sound in the underlined part. A. show B. programme C. sport D. most 12. Find one odd word. A. baseball B. badminton C. basketball D. popular 13. ___ to a native speaker of English, Phuong? A. Have you ever talked B. Do you ever talk C. Did you ever talk D. Are you ever talking 14. We sometimes ___ out when we lived in the city. A. eat B. will eat C. have eaten D. ate 15. Vinh ___ home for school yet. A. didn’t leave B. hasn’t left C. isn’t leaving D. don’t leave II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. 1. Laura (be) ___ from Canada. She (speak) ___ English and French. She (come) ___ to Vietnam tomorrow. She (stay) ___ in a hotel in Ho Chi Minh City for 3 weeks. She (visit) ___ a lot of places in Vietnam. 10 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
11. PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 Part II 2. Which language ___ Peter (speak) ___? 3. He often (have) ___ coffee for breakfast, but today he (eat) ___ some eggs. 4. I (make) ___ some sandwiches. Would you like one? 5. I’m not sure what is wrong with the car. It (not/happen) ___ before. III.There is ONE mistake in each sentence. Try to find the mistake and correct it. 1. My sister don’t have a house. 2. We walk in the mountains at the moment. 3. How many season are there in a year? 4. It’s often cold in the summer. 5. How much oranges do you want? IV. Read the passage and answer the following questions by choosing A, B, C or D. David and Lucy Smith live in Blackpool in England. They have a big house near the beach. There are five bedrooms, two bathrooms, and a balcony. David and Lucy have two children. Their names are Sam and Anne. Sam is twelve and Anne is fourteen. David works in a bank and Lucy is a doctor. They get up at seven o’clock every morning. They usually leave home at eight o’clock. Lucy drives to school with Sam and Anne, and then she drives to work at the hospital. In the evening, David always cooks dinner. After dinner, David and Lucy sometimes watch television. They never go out in the evenings. Sam and Anne visit their friends. In summer, they go to the beach at weekends. Sam and Anne like swimming in the sea. In winter they don’t go to the beach at weekends because it is very cold. 1. Where do they live? A. in Liverpool B. in the South of England C. Near Blackpool D. Near the sea 2. Their house ___. A. is not very big B. has 7 rooms C. is near a balcony D. is very nice 3. Where does Lucy work? A. in a bank B. in a hospital C. at school D. in a farm 4. In the evening, David ___. A. sometimes visits his friends B. goes out C. prepares dinner D. helps Lucy cook dinner 5. From this text, we know that their children ___. A. are still very small B. are very lazy in the evening 11
12. Part II PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 C. like the beach D. sleep in two bedrooms V. Reorder these words to make correct sentences. 1. part / life / sports / an / in / our / games / play / and / important. 2. in/ we / tennis / often / table / summer / do / play / aerobics / and. 3. weekend / sometimes / go / at / with / I / my / the / swimming / friends. 4. very / like / am / don’t / I / because / basketball / playing / short / I. VI. Rewrite the following sentences so that their meanings stay the same. 1. My brother plays football very well. My brother is 2. Mark likes playing badminton most. Badminton is LISTENING Part I. Listen to the passage and give short answers to the following questions. Track 33 1. Is Stockholm a fantastic city? 2. Has the weather been good? 3. What did Mai have in a café in the Old Town? 4. What did her mom and dad rent? 5. Where are they cycling tomorrow? Part II. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer. (Track 34) 1. Where does Cathy live? A. In England. B. In Wales. C. In Scotland. D. In France 2. How many people are there in Cathy’s family? A. 7 B. 6 C. 5 D. 4 3. How many rooms are there in Cathy’s house? A. 10 B. 11 C. 13 D. 14 4. Which of the following is not true? A. Cathy’s family live in a large house. B. Cathy’s house is big but doesn’t have any gardens. C. Cathy’s house has two garages. 12 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
13. PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 Part II D. The kitchen in Cathy’s house is big. 13
14. Part II PRACTICE GRAMMAR ENGLISH 6 KEYS Part I Second semester A 15- MINUTE TEST ĐỀ SỐ 1 I. 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. A II. 1. How often does she go to the zoo? 2. What time/ when can they meet in front of the theater? 3. Why does Peter like the comedy? 4. How long does the documentary last? Liên hệ Zalo 0988 166 193 để xem tài liệu ĐỀ SỐ 2 I. 1. so 2. because 3. so 4. and 5. so 6. because 7. but 8. because 9. and 10. because II. 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. G 6. E 7. H 8. F ĐỀ SỐ 3 1. wasn’t 2. bought 3. went 4. likes 5. is writing 6. played 7. am speaking 8. bought 9. wasn’t 10. didn’t visit 11. did/drive 12. brings 13. didn’t work 14. left 15. laughs 16. talks 17. drove 18. wore 19. wrote 20. gives ĐỀ SỐ 4 I. 1. Go upstairs. 2. Don’t swim in this lake. 3. Do your homework. 4. Don’t play football in the yard. 14 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
15. KEYS 5. Brush your teeth. 6. Don’t talk during the lesson. 7. Don’t feed the animals in the zoo. 8. Read the instructions. 9. Don’t be late for school. 10. Switch off your mobiles. II. 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. B ĐỀ SỐ 5 1. have lived 2. have worked 3. has read 4. have known 5. haven’t seen 6. haven’t worked 7. hasn’t done 8. have lost 9. has bought 10. have reserved 11. have learnt 12. has played 13. hasn’t rained 14. haven’t seen 15. have studied ĐỀ SỐ 6 1. the funniest 2. the heaviest 3. the cutest 4. the most comfortable 5. the worst 6. the most difficult 7. the saddest 8. the tidiest 9. the oldest 10. the strangest 11. the farthest 12. the most dangerous 13. the sunniest 14. the hottest 15. the latest ĐỀ SỐ 7 I. 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. D II. 1. My wife will make a big meal tonight. 2. I will not have a birthday party this year. 3. Will you meet Susan tonight? 4. We will take our children on holiday with us. ĐỀ SỐ 8 1. will you do 2. will have 3. will give 4. will help 5. will cook 6. will change 7. will move 8. Will you go 9. Will you go 10. will meet 11. will make 12. will ask 13. will call 14. will have 15. will be ĐỀ SỐ 9 15
16. KEYS 1. reads 2. will phone 3. makes 4. will buy 5. will go 6. need 7. won’t write 8. will pass 9. is 10. won’t go 11. gets 12. will visit 13. will buy 14. will send 15. will watch ĐỀ SỐ 10 I. 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. B II. 1. E 2. H 3. A 4. G 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. F ĐỀ SỐ 11 I. 1. can 2. can’t 3. can’t 4. can’t 5. can’t 6. can 7. can 8. can’t 9. can’t 10. can II. 1. couldn’t 2. could 3. couldn’t 4. couldn’t 5. could 6. couldn’t 7. couldn’t 8. could 9. couldn’t 10. could ĐỀ SỐ 12 I. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. A II. 1. won’t be able 2. will be able 3. will be able 4. will be able 5. will be able 6. won’t be able 7. will be able 8. won’t be able 9. won’t be able 10. will be able 16 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
17. KEYS B THE FIRST 45-MINUTE TEST ĐỀ SỐ 1 I. 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B II. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. C III. 1. do you clean 2. is talking 3. have you ever been 4. goes 5. didn’t take 6. has never seen 7. did you meet 8. don’t open IV. 1. in 2. spend 3. and 4. is 5. for 6. outdoor 7. not 8. than V. 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B VI. 1. Where is Peter reading books? 2. What are they doing in the park? 3 What mustn’t we do in the classroom? 4. How often do you stay up late on Saturday night? 5. When do many girls do aerobics? LISTENING Part 1. 1. soccer 2. three 3. football 4. cycling 5. swim Part 2. 1. F 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F TAPE SCRIPTS Part I. Listen and fill in the missing word. 1. I often play soccer with my classmates in the school yard. 2. Thanh goes swimming three times a week in summer. 3. Our teacher is a big fan of the Manchester football team. 4. I like swimming and cycling in the countryside. 5. My father taught me to swim when I was a child. Part II. Listen to the passage and decide whether the sentences are True or False. I have three good friends: Tom, Alice and Linda. They like sports. Tom likes soccer and tennis; Alice likes badminton and Linda likes aerobics. They all like watching soccer on television. Tom often plays soccer in the afternoon with his classmates at the weekend. Alice 17
18. KEYS plays badminton twice a week; and Linda does aerobics on Thursday and Sunday. Alice and Linda play sports at the sports club. ĐỀ SỐ 2 I. 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. D 15. B II. 1. is – speaks – is going to come – is going to stay – is going to visit 2. does Peter speak? 3. has – is eating 4. will make/ am making 5. hasn’t happened III. 1. don’t → doesn’t 2. walk → are walking 3. season → seasons 4. cold → hot 5. much → many IV. 1. D 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. C V. 1. Sports and games play an important part in our life. 2. We often play table tennis and do aerobics in summer. 3. I sometimes go swimming with my friends at the weekend. 4. I don’t like playing basketball because I am very short. VI. 1. My brother is a very good football player. 2. Badminton is Mark’s favourite sport. LISTENING Part I. 1. Yes, it is. 2. Yes, it has. 3. She had a very special cake there. 4. They rented a bike. 5. They are cycling around the city. Part II. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B TAPE SCRIPTS Part 1. Listen to the passage and give short answers to the following questions. Stockholm is a fantastic city. The weather has always been good since I came here. My family had a chance to enjoy a very special cake in the Old Town. In the afternoon, my Mom and Dad rented a bike and tomorrow we are going to cycle around the city. 18 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
19. KEYS Part II. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer. Hi! My name is Cathy. I live in Liverpool. Liverpool is a large city in the North of England. I live with my parents, my two brothers and my sister. We live in a large house. In our house, there is a big kitchen, a dining room, a large living room, and a toilet. There is also a separate room for our washing machine and freezer. Upstairs there are five bedrooms, two bathrooms, and another toilet. Outside, there is a large garden. There are two garages. ĐỀ SỐ 3 I. 1. A 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. A II. 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. C III. 1. A: play → played 2. B: watched → watch 3. B: buyed → bought 4. A: was → were 5. B: took → take IV. 1. center 2. capital 3. landscapes 4. jobs 5. universities 6. education 7. historical 8. modern V. 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D VI. 1. “Don’t draw on the wall” 2. “Don’t make noise in class!” 3. “Don’t watch TV all day” 4. “Help me do the housework at weekend!” LISTENING Part I. 1. F 2. T 3. T 4. F 5.F Part II. 1. How 2. modern 3. clean 4. from 5. housework TAPE SCRIPTS Part I. Listen to the passage, and then decide whether the sentences are True or False. When Ann lived in Brazil, she joined a riding club. It was brilliant! She learned how to ride and how to look after a horse. Now she lives in the US and there isn’t a club in her village but it isn’t a problem. Her friend lives on a farm and she has two horses, so twice a week (Wednesdays and Fridays) after school she goes there to ride with her friend. Ann thinks she’s lucky! Part II. Listen to the conversation and fill in the missing word. 19
20. KEYS A: Will you live in a hi-tech house? B: Yes, I think so. A: How are our houses in the future? B: I think they will be very modern. A: Is it friendly to the environment? B: Yes, that’s right. It will only use clean energy so that we can keep the environment clean. A: What about the appliances? B: The Internet TV helps us to watch TV programmes from space. A: Will you have any robots in your house? B: Well. Robots will do all the housework, so we will have more time for our family and to relax. ĐỀ SỐ 4 I. l. A 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B II. 1. but 2. so 3. although 4. because 5. so III. 1. were, went 2. Did you watch 3. doesn’t play, likes 4. took IV. 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C V. 1. Does Nick always go fishing on weekend? 2. Do you play chess everyday? 3. How often do the children go to the movies? 4. Lucy often plays video games in the afternoon. LISTENING Part 1. 1. swimming 2. skipping 3. horse - racing 4. football Part 2. 1. these 2. reduce 3. writing 4. idea 5. give TAPE SCRIPTS 20 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
21. KEYS Part I. Listen and write the names of the sports you hear under the picture. 1. swimming 2. skipping 3. horse - racing 4. football Part II. Listen and write the missing words you hear. Mary: What do these three Rs stand for? Tim: They stand for reduce, reuse and recycle. Mary: Our class is organizing a writing contest We have to write about the environment. Tim: I see. Why don’t you write about the three Rs? Mary: That’s a good idea. I will ask my father for ideas. Tim: Yes. He works at the Green Company, so he’ll give you a lot of in formation. Mary: Thank you! ĐỀ SỐ 5 I. 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. B II. 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. B III. 1. has worked 2. has seen 3. were not 4. haven’t seen, were 5. Did you wear IV. 1. most expensive 2. most historic 3. more famous 4. longer 5. more dangerous V. 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C VI. 1. I last heard from him 10 years ago. 2. It is a good way to lose weight by doing exercises. 3. What is your favourite TV programmes? 4. She was in Sydney in 2016. UNIT 12 Exercise 1: 1. won’t be able to 2. can’t 3. couldn’t 4. couldn’t 5. can 6. can 7. will be able to 8. could 9. could 10. can’t 21
22. KEYS Exercise 2: 1. can play 2. could walk 3. can’t come 4. can cook 5. could beat 6. can pass 7. couldn’t write 8. can’t hear 9. could run 10. couldn’t persuade Exercise 3: 1. will be able to build 6. won’t be able to laugh 2. won’t be able to lift 7. be able to play 3. be able to speak 8. won’t be able attend 4. will/won’t be able to come 9. will be able to see 5. will be able to write 10. will be able to answer Exercise 4: 1. could 2. could 3. won’t able to 4. could 5. can’t 6. can 7. will be able to 8. could 9. couldn’t 10. can’t 11. couldn’t 12. won’t be able to 13. couldn’t 14. could 15. will you be able to Exercise 5: 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. B 22 BỘ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - TẬP 2
23. KEYS CONTENT LỜI NÓI ĐẦU 3 PART I: SECOND SEMESTER 4 A. 15- minute test 4 B. The first 45-minute test 13 C. The second 45-minute test 29 D. The second semester test 44 PART II: GRAMMAR PRACTICE ENGLISH 6 62 KEYS 3 23