Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Trường THCS Tam Hưng (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Trường THCS Tam Hưng (Có đáp án)

1. TRƯỜNG THCS TAM HƯNG ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC: 2015 – 2016 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 07 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 07. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1: Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng - Bằng số: chấm thi ghi) - Bằng chữ: Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) I. Listen and fill in the gaps with the adjectives or adverbs you hear. (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) Dear Mom, I am staying in a very comfortable hotel in the south of France, near a nice beach. Unfortunately it has been very (1) and the hotel itself is very expensive. Another problem is that the chef cooks badly. The food is not (2) and I have been hungry most of the time because I have had (3) difficulty in finding anything (4) on the menu. However, I have been very impressed by the beautiful surroundings and the kind people. It is true that I have suffered a bit from boredom, but I always do when I’m not (5) occupied. Sometimes I feel (6) in the middle of the day and I have a short snap, which I am very (7) for. Unfortunately I sleep quite badly at night because the people in the room next to me snore (8) Anyway, I’m leaving this Friday. The drive back will (9) take me two or three days as long as the traffic isn’t too bad I’ll get in touch (10) as soon as I get home and maybe we can arrange to meet up for a meal. See you soon, Hoang 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 II. Listen to the conversation and circle the correct answers. (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 11. Which course is the man interested in? A. English B. Mandarin C. Japanese 1
2. 12. What kind of course is the man seeking? A. Daytime B. Evenings C. Weekends 13. How long does the man want to study? A. 12 weeks B. 6 months C. 8 months 14. What proficiency level is the student? A. Beginner B. Intermediate C. Advanced 15. When does the man want to start the course? A. March B. June C. September PART TWO: PHONETICS ( 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 1. A. clerk B. terse C. term D. jerk 2. A. hand B. bank C. sand D. band 3. A. honey B. rhythm C. exhume D. behold 4. A. dormitory B. information C. organization D. forward 5. A. food B. shoot C. shook D. spool II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 6. A. exchange B. invite C. economic D. embroider 7. A. intermediate B. documentary C. reputation D. communicate 8. A. benefit B. environment C. wonderful D. category 9. A. century B. conclusion C. available D. ambition 10.A. contain B. achieve C. improve D. visit PART III VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR ( 7 pts) I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (0,2 x 15 = 3 pts) 11. I had to get up early, .I would miss the train. A. otherwise B. if not C. so that D. but 12. My parents are going to take three days .next month to help my brother move his house. A. at B. over C. off D. out 13. English is used as an access . .a world scholarship and world trade. A. into B. to C. for D. towards 14. Parents love and support their children .the children misbehave or do foolish things. A. if B. since C. only if D. even if 15. The Historical Museum is becoming . crowded. A. much and more B. more and more C. much and much D. more and much 16. The scheme allows students from many countries to communicate . A. with other B. themselves C. each other D. with one another 2
3. 17. Have you ever read anything .Earnest Hengmingway? A. by B. of C. from D. for 18. Not a good movie, .? A. did it B. didn’t it C. was it D. wasn’t it 19. Hoi An is .for its old, small and tile-roofed houses. A. well-done B. well-dressed C. well-organized D. well-known 20. Hurry up! They have only got .seats left. A. a lot of B. plenty of C. a little D. a few 21. The party, at I was the guest honor, was extremely enjoyable. A. that B. who C. which D. where 22. ___ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue. A. All B. That all C. Since all D. Why all 23. I came an old friend while I was walking along the street. A. across B. into C. over D. for 24. Everyone Tom was invited to the party. A. as B. from C. but D. for 25. If you to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess now. A. listen B. will listen C. listened D. had listened II. Use the words given to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 26. He has little .of winning a prize. EXPECT 27. He resigned for a .of reasons. VARIOUS 28. He is very generous and everyone admires his . . SELF 29. It seems .to change the timetable so often. LOGIC 30. It is .that you missed the meeting. FORTUNE 31. Could you .the picture over the sofa? STRAIGHT 32. She wanted to have her skirt . LONG 33. They all cheered .as their team came out. ENTHUSIASM 34. He will not benefit .from the deal. FINANCE 35. “Look after your mother,” were his .words. DIE -> Your answers: 26 31 27 32 28 33 29 34 30 35 III. Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below ( make any necessary changes) (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) Go over give off hold back call off pay off bring out put aside make up for see( someone) off 3
4. put( someone) through to run out of bring( someone) round 36. They had to the football match because of weather. 37. We managed to by splashing his face with water. 38. Could you the manager, please? 39. The detective carefully the facts with the witness. 40. We’ve sugar, could you go and buy some? 41. As the detective stories become popular once again, the publishing house decides to a new edition of Christie’s work. 42. The film was so sad that she couldn’t her tears. 43. Ten employees were as there wasn’t enough work for us. 44. He bought some flowers to his bad behavior. 45. The old widow warned her two sons not to spend so much money so fast in case that some thing could happen and told them to some money for the future. -> Your answers: 36 41 37 42 38 43 39 44 40 45 PART IV: READING ( 4.0 pts) I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt) NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on (46) . planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if planets 50 (47) .years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (48) ., NASA scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (49) . of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be (50) . around 2015, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (51) . processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (52) ., but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (53) .galaxy, even though these planets lie (54)___ our reach for the 4
5. moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision (55) . Darwin within three years. 46. A. another B. other C. others D. the other 47. A. light B. lighten C. lightening D. lighting 48. A. following B. after C. next D. later 49. A. price B. schedule C. charge D. budget 50. A. driven B. fetched C. launched D. taken 51. A. central B. centre C. middle D. heart 52. A. invents B. searches C. discovers D. looks 53. A. alone B. same C. one D. own 54. A. out B. toward C. beyond D. over 55. A. of B. on C. about D. with II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) Traveling to all corners of the world is (56) . easier and easier. We live (57) . a global village, but how well do we know and understand each other ? Here is (58) . simple test. Imagine you have arranged a meeting at 4 p.m. What time should you expect your foreign business colleagues to arrive? If they are German, they'll be exactly (59) . time. If they are American, they'll probably be 15 minutes early. If they are British, they be 15 minutes (60) ., and you should allow up to an hour for the Indians. Therefore, these are some small advice in (61) . not to behave badly abroad. In France you shouldn’t sit down in a cafard until you are shaken hands with everyone you know. In Afghanistan you'd better spend at last 5 minutes (62) . hello. In Pakistan you mustn’t wink. It is offensive. In the Middle East you must never use the left hand for greeting, eating, drinking or smoking. Also, you should care not to admire (63) . in your host’s home. They will feel that they have to give it to you. In Russia you must your hosts drink for drink or they will think you are unfriendly. In Thailand you should clasp your hands (64) . and lower your head and your eyes when you greet someone. In America you should eat your hamburger with both hands and as quickly as (65) You shouldn’t try to have a conversation until it is eaten. -> Your answers: 56 61 57 62 58 63 59 64 60 65 5
6. III. Circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) Man is a land animal, but he is also closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea has served the need of man. The sea has provided man with food and a convenient way to travel to many parts of the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world’s population live within 80 kms of the sea coast. In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive. Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply many of man’s needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man’s technology is impressive. Oil and gas explorations have been carried out for nearly 30 years. A lot of valuable minerals exist on the ocean floor ready to be mined. Fish farming promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of fish and shellfish is an ancient skill practiced in the past mainly by Oriental people. Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new sources of energy. Experts believe that the warm temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean currents and waves offer possible use as a source of energy. Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of strong, new materials has made this possible. The technology to harvest the sea continues to improve. Experts believe that by the year 2050s the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the food, minerals, and energy sources of the sea will be largely solved. 66. The best title for this passage is A. Sea Harvest. B. Technology and the Exploiting of the C. Sea Food. Sea. D. Man and Sea. 67. The major things that the sea offers man are A. food, energy sources and minerals. B. fish and oil. C. minerals and oil. D. ocean currents and waves. 68. The sea serves the needs of man because A. it provides man with sea food. B. it offers oil to man. C. it supplies man with minerals. D. all of the above. 69. The word Oriental people in the fourth paragraph probably means A. European people. B. African people. C. Asian people. D. American people. 70. We can conclude from the passage that A. the sea resources have largely been used up. B. the sea, in a broad sense, hasn’t yet been developed. C. the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the sea have already been solved. 6
7. D. by the year 2050, the technology will be good enough to exploit all the sea resources. PART V: WRITING: (4.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 71. It was wrong of you to allow a four-year-old child to walk home alone. - You should 72. I could realize how important the family is only after I left home. - Not until 73. Mrs. Green is proud of her son’s contribution to the play. - Mrs. Green is proud of what 74. They recruited very few young engineers. - Hardly 75. Only two out of the five rooms we have booked have air conditioning. - We have booked five rooms, only II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in anyway. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 76. It's possible Karen didn't hear her name being called. might → Karen . her name being called. 77. “Don’t forget to lock the house when you go out, William,” his mother said. reminded → William’s mother when he went out. 78. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. against → Against . she lost 79. There weren't many guests at the wedding. only → There were guests at the wedding. 80. Promise to look after it and you can borrow my tennis racquet. long → You can borrow my tennis racquet, . to look after it. III. Write a paragraph (of about 150 words) in which you suggest several ways to protect the environment of your school . (3 pts) 7
8. ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) I. Listen and fill in the gaps with the adjectives or adverbs you hear. (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 1. comfortable 2. delicious 3. great 4. suitable 5. fully 6. sleepy 7. thankful 8. terribly 9. probably 10. immediately II. Listen to the conversation and circle the correct answers. (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 11. Which course is the man interested in? A. English B. Mandarin C. Japanese 12. What kind of course is the man seeking? A. Daytime B. Evenings C. Weekends 13. How long does the man want to study? A. 12 weeks B. 6 months C. 8 months 14. What proficiency level is the student? A. Beginner B. Intermediate C. Advanced 15. When does the man want to start the course? A. March B. June C. September PART TWO: PHONETICS ( 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 1. A. clerk 4. B. information 2. B. bank 5. C. shook 3. B. rhythm II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 6. C. economic 9. A. century 7. D. communicate 10.D. visit 8. B. environment PART III VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR ( 6.5 pts) I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (0,2 x 15 = 3 pts) 11. A. otherwise 16. D. with one another 21. C. which 12. C. off 17. A. by 22. B. That all 13. B. to 18. C. was it 23. A. across 8
9. 14. D. even if 19. D. well-known 24. C. but 15. B. more and more 20. D. a few 25. D. had listened II. Use the words given to form a word that fits in the space. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt) 26. expectation 31. straighten 27. variety 32. lengthened 28. selflessness/ unselfishness 33. enthusiastically 29. illogical 34. financially 30. unfortunate 35. dying III. Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below ( make any necessary changes) (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 36. call off 41. bring out 37. bring him round 42. hold back 38. put through to 43. paid off 39. went over 44. make up for 40. run out of 45. put aside PART IV. READING: I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt) 46. B. other 51. A. central 47. A. light 52. C. discovery 48. D. later 53. D. own 49. D. budget 54. C. beyond 50. C. launched 55. B. on II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 56. getting/ becoming 61. order 57. in 62. saying 58. a 63. anything 59. on 64. together 60. late 65. possible III. Circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 66. B 69. C 67. A 70. D 68. D PART V: WRITING: (4.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 9
10. 71. You should not have allowed a four-year-old child to walk home alone. 72. Not until I left home, could/ did I realize how important the family is. 73. Mrs. Green is proud of what her son contributes/ can contribute to the play. 74. Hardly any young engineers were recruited. 75. We have booked five rooms, only two of which have air-conditioning. II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in anyway . (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 76. Karen might not have heard her name being called. 77. William's mother reminded him to lock the house when he went out. 78. Against everyone's expectation she lost. 79. There were only a few guests at the wedding. 80. You can borrow my tennis racquet, as/ so long as you promise to look after it. III. Write a paragraph (of about 150 words) in which you suggest several ways to protect the environment of your school. (3pts) - Bài viết đủ mở bài, thân bài, kết luận. (0.5pt) - Thân bài nêu được ít nhất 3 lí do; có sử dụng connectors and link words (2,0) - Kết luận: nêu ý kiến của bản thân (0.25) ; đủ số lượng từ (0,25) Người soát đề Người ra đề Mai Ngọc Ánh 10
11. Họ tên, chữ ký của người coi thi KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 (VÒNG 1) - Giám thị số 1: Năm học: 2015 - 2016 - Giám thị số 2: MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: .tháng .năm 2015 Số báo danh: . Họ và tên thí sinh: Sinh ngày: .tháng .năm . Nơi sinh: Nam (nữ) . Học sinh trường THCS Chú ý: - Thí sinh phải ghi đầy đủ các mục ở phần trên theo sự hướng dẫn của giám thị. - Thí sinh không được ký tên hay dùng bất cứ ký hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi (ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề thi). - Bài thi không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không được viết bằng hai thứ mực. - Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác (kể cả bút xóa). - Trái với các điều trên, bài làm của thí sinh sẽ bị loại. 11