Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)

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  1. SỞ GD&ĐT KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 07 trang) PART A. LISTENING (Each recording will be played TWICE) Section I. Question 1 – 10: You will hear a lecturer talking about “Business in the Modern World”. Listen and complete the notes below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. COMPANY OUTSOURCING Case study - TCP Technologies: • Manager: Manjeet Khanna • Main target: to create a (1)___ environment Grading for staff: • Every month grades are published on an (2)___. • The cultural openness increased the quantity of incoming contracted opportunities. • The cultural openness improved the level of (3)___ of the company. • The increased rate of staff satisfaction has led to growth of 32% in the (4)___. Recent interview: • A company is not one entity comprised of components, but a living organism composed of cells. • Manjeet’s motto is (5)___ Benefits of management style: • The rate of staff turnover has been reduced. • A (6)___ can be from any other company. • Grades are not used for (7)___ Features of managing style: • Personally, the manager wrote emails to respond to the complaints. • The complaint form known as a (8)___ has access to all employees online. • The manager can receive any complaints concerning air conditioning, food quality and (9)___ entitlement. • A (10)___ on the anonymous complaint was introduced in the new system. Section II. Question 11 – 15. Choose the correct answer A, B or C for each question. LEFT AND RIGHT HANDEDNESS IN SPORT 11. Anita first felt the Matthews article was of value when she realised ___. A. how it would help her difficulties with left-handedness. B. the relevance of connections he made with music. C. the impressive size of his research project. 12. Anita feels that the findings on handedness will be of value in ___. A. helping sportspeople identify their weaknesses. B. aiding sportspeople as they plan tactics for each game. C. developing suitable training programmes for sportspeople. 13. Anita feels that most sports coaches ___. A. know nothing about the influence of handedness. B. focus on the wrong aspects of C. underestimate what Science has to offer sport. 14. A German study showed there was greater 'mixed handedness' in musicians who ___. A. started playing instruments in early youth. B. play a string instrument such as the violin. 1
  2. C. practise a great deal on their instrument. 15. Studies on ape behaviour show that ___. A. apes which always use the same hand to get food are most successful. B. apes have the same proportion of left- and right-handers as humans. C. more apes are left-handed than right-handed. Section III. You will hear people talking in five different situations. For questions 16 - 20, choose the best answer (A, B or C). 16. You hear part of a talk by a young man who's just come back from a trip. What was the main benefit of the trip for him? A. He became more independent.B. He learnt a foreign language.C. He made new friends. 17. You hear a woman talking about the final episode of a TV series. What does she say about it? A. It wasn't as good as previous episodes. B. It failed to attract a large number of viewers. C. It delivered an unexpected end to the story. 18. You hear a DJ who works in a club, talking about his job. What makes him unhappy? A. being asked to play old-fashioned types of music B. being asked to play the same track more than once C. being asked to play the bands which he dislikes most 19. You hear a man talking about an art exhibition. What does he criticise about it? A. the way the paintings were displayed B. the number of paintings in the exhibition C. the lack of information about the paintings 20. You hear a radio announcement about a job vacancy. What skill must you have if you want the job? A. an ability to deal with complaints B. an ability to work with numbers C. an ability to write well PART B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR Section 1: Choose the correct option marked A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. 1. “Is it difficult ___ a watch?” – “No, I’ve actually gotten used to guessing the time.” A. your not to having B. not having C. having not D. to have not 2. With the increase in international crime, it is logical to ___ searched at customs nowadays. A. assume being B. assume to be C. assuming that you are D. assume you will be 3. A major problem in the construction of new buildings ___. A. is that windows have been eliminated while air conditioning systems have not been perfected. B. is they have eliminated windows and still don’t have good air conditioning. C. is because windows are eliminated but air conditioners don’t work D. is dependent on the fact that while they have eliminated windows, they are not capable to produce efficient air conditioning systems. 4. “Have you been trying to lose weight?” – “No, but I’ve been thinking ___.” A. to diet B. to go dieting C. of going diet D. about dieting 5. “I don’t know what I was thinking.” – “Well, ___.” A. I do neither B. I do either C. I do D. I do too 6. The big trouble was that I really didn’t have ___ an idea of what I wanted Charles to say. A. none of B. very much of C. too much D. many of 7. We have gone on holiday together several times since we ___ friends. 2
  3. A. were B. had been C. are D. have been 8. “This car is far more economical than that one.” – “___ it that way, I guess it’s a better buy.” A. Being seen B. Seeing C. To see D. The seeing of 9. Using bare toes, lift a towel from the floor 10 times with the painful foot, then 10 times with ___. A. another B. each other C. the other D. others 10. I have no idea where they are. They could be ___. A. everywhere B. anything C. somewhere D. anywhere 11. Bob is so short-tempered; he should try to ___ his anger. A. monitor B. curb C. temper D. stunt 12. The police ___ the woods looking for the lost child. A. scoured B. integrated C. traced D. encountered 13. Don’t mention work to Ray, as it’s a sore ___ with him at the moment. A. finger B. point C. place D. nail 14. The couple ___ under the umbrella to keep dry. A. enclosed B. muffled C. huddled D. augmented 15. A long, green snake ___ through the grass and disappeared. A. strutted B. slunk C. slithered D. scampered 16. This schedule isn’t final. It’s only ___. A. tentative B. sporadic C. contemporary D. subsequent 17. My new pullover ___ to half its previous size when I washed it. A. shrank B. reduced C. diminished D. dwindled 18. The new accounting system ___ all my work useless. A. transformed B. rendered C. transposed D. converted 19. Martin just loves to ___ his teeth into a really challenging crossword. A. grind B. get C. put D. sink 20. The doctor said that sweets should be eaten in ___. A. compulsion B. restriction C. moderation D. qualification Section 2: There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find out the mistake and correct it as example below. (0). 1 No one can deny that young people, especial teenagers, prefer the advice of a friend in the event of 2 problems. I am of the opinion that this is wrong. I believe that a friend’s advice is not as sound as a 3 parent, in most cases. Asking for advice from one of your parents is a far better for many reasons. First 4 of all, parents are more mature and as a result more experience. They can deal with any kind of problem 5 a teenager may have. How I'm trying to say is that one can depend on adults more, since a teenager’s 6 friends are of his/her own age, and are therefore unable to offer mature advice. Moreover, it's a sad 7 reality that friends are not always the most reliable people to turn because a friendship is not true 8 always. In other words, a friend may feel enviable of our success and his advice will be affected by his 9 feelings. On the other hand, it could be arguing that a teenager could understand another teenager's 10 problem better, but I still think that if parents try to have a good relationship between their teenage 11 children they can understand them deeply too. To sum up, it is evident that the true love of a parent 12 feels for his/her child will lead to effective solutions to teenagers’ problems. (0). Line 1: especial -> especially Section 3. Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank. BRISTLEWORMS - A HOBBYIST'S GUIDE 3
  4. Historically, Bristleworms have had a bad reputation among (1) ___ 1. WATER aquarium aficionados. These marine worms usually enter the hobbyist's aquarium by hitching a ride on a piece of coral. Once (2) ___ , they become part of the tank's 2. ESTABLISHMENT ecosystem. Bristleworms range greatly in size. The smallest ones are about an inch long, and the large ones can grow to over 20 inches, although, being (3) ___ , 3. SEGMENTAL their bodies are often retracted and so not usually seen at their greatest extent. Literature has frequently contented that bristleworms are harmful, (4) ___ that 4. ASSERTIVE they eat clams, anemones and even coral fish. However, most (5) ___ now 5. ENTHUSIASM conclude that small bristleworms pose no threat, and are merely (6)___ , 6. SCAVENGE clearing the tank from detritus and carcasses of animals that are already dead. However, larger worms, particularly those of the species known as fireworms, are (7) 7.VORACITY ___ eaters and can do (8) ___ damage. These worms are better removed, 8. REPAIR although this is a challenge in itself, as the worms are (9) ___ , sensitive to light 9. NOCTURNE and will go into hiding at the slightest (10) ___. 10. DISTURB PART C. READING Section 1: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that best fits in the blank. Despite the continued (1) ___ of those early town perks, it wasn't until the Depression that modern Hershey start¬ed to take shape. Perhaps the only town in the country actually to (2) ___ during the 1930s, it thrived because Hershey vowed his Utopia would never see a breadline. Instead he (3) ___ a massive building boom that gave rise to the most visited buildings in today's Hershey and delivered wages to more than 600 workers. He admitted that his (4) ___were partly selfish: "If I don’t provide work for them, I'll have to feed them. And since building materials are now at their lowest cost levels, I'm going to build and give them jobs." He seems to have (5) ___no expense; most of the new buildings were strikingly (6) ___ The first to be finished was the three-million-dollar limestone Community Center, home to the 1,904-seat Venetian-style Hershey Community Theater, which has played (7)___since 1933 to touring Broadway shows and to music, dance, and opera performances. It offers just as much to look at when the lights are on and the curtains closed. The floors in the (8) ___ named Grand Lobby are polished Italian lava rock, surrounded by marble walls and capped with a bas-relief ceiling showing sheaves of wheat, beehives, swans, and scenes from Roman mythology. With the (9) ___ inner foyer, Hershey thumbed his nose even harder at the ravages of the Depression: The arched ceiling is tiled in gold, the fire curtain bears a painting of Venice, and the ceiling is (10) ___ with 88 tiny light-bulbs to re-create a star-lit night. 1. A. flexibility B. rigidity C. elasticity D. resilience 2. A. prosper B. decline C. get on D. flower 3. A. trusted B. funded C. accounted D. stocked 4. A. pretensions B. objections C. preoccupation D. intentions 5. A. spared B. spent C. allowed D. justified 6. A. impoverished B. unattractive C. poor D. opulent 7. A. hosting B. housing C. host D. homogeneously 8. A. aptly B. inappropriately C. seemingly D. frightfully 9. A. dizzying B. gaudy C. dazzling D. bland 10. A. holed B. studded C. supported D. magnified Section 2: Read the following passage and think of ONE word that best fits in the numbered blank. 4
  5. The television series "Rin Tin Tin" featured a German shepherd that did all the (1)___ for the shows itself. The stunts included such feats as leaping through closed windows, (2)___ locked doors and pulling the correct levers to close the locks of a dam. History has it that on 15th September, 1918, during the last days of World War I, a group of American (3)___ stumbled upon a German shepherd and her (4)___ of puppies. One of the soldiers, Lee Duncan, took a fancy to the puppies and brought two of them back home with him to California. One of the puppies (5)___ on the way but the other, Rin Tin Tin, survived. Rin Tin Tin was intelligent and hardworking. It (6)___ in many of the silent movies in the 1920s and was extremely popular with children of all (7)___. The renowned canine starred in its (8)___ radio programs too and in its lifetime it (9)___ the privilege of having its own car, a chauffeur and a chef. This animal star died on 10th August 1932. It was survived by its son, Rinty Junior. Rinty Junior followed its father's footsteps and (10)___ feature films throughout the 1930s. Section 3: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for each question. People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once every two months. Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the blood from a donor’s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate, which prevents the blood from clotting. When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected to the recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease causing bacteria. Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell incompatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system through administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets. Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen alt blood donors and their blood. All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets removed. Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze the, the glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has been a boon to human health. 1. All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT ___. A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes B. Air bubbles in the blood C. Allergies D. Red-cell incompatibility 2. What can the phrase "go to great lengths" best replaced by? A. irradiated B. rigorously C. routinely D. removed 3. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to infants and newborns? A. It is treated with radiant energy. B. It is not treated differently from adults. C. It is not dangerous for children. D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults. 4. What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”? A. not illustrated B. not captured C. not found D. not wanted 5. What does the author imply in the passage? A. Motoring blood benefits mankind. B. Clotting cannot be prevented. C. Freezing blood destroys platelets. D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process. 5
  6. Section 4: You are going to read an article about a woman who is a downhill mountain-bike racer. Five sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A – G the one which fits each gap (1-5). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. SENTENCES: A. I’ve fallen off more times than I care to remember. B. I usually have to stop during practice sessions. C. The courses were twice as long and the crowds were twice as big. D. I’m not strong enough in my arms, so I’ve been doing a lot of upper-body training this year. E. The attitude was: how much skill do you need to sit on a saddle and point a bike in the same direction for a few minutes? F. Nothing could be further from the truth. G. It’s not all stardom and glamour, though. MOUNTAIN BIKING WITH ANNA JONES Anna Jones tells of her move from skiing to downhill mountain biking and her rapid rise up the ranks to her current position as one of the top five downhill racers in the country. At the age of seven I had learnt to ski and by fourteen I was competing internationally. When I was eighteen a close friend was injured in a ski race, and as a result, I gave up competitive skiing. To fill the gap that skiing had left I decided to swap two planks of wood for two wheels with big tyres. My first race was a cross-country race in 1995. It wasn’t an amazing success. I finished last, but it didn’t matter as I really enjoyed it. After entering a few more cross-country races, a local bike shop gave me a downhill bike to try. I entered a downhill race, fell off, but did reasonably well in the end, so I switched to downhill racing. I think my skiing helped a lot as I was able to transfer several skills such as cornering and weight- balance to mountain biking. This year I’m riding for a famous British team and there are races almost every weekend from March through to September. (0).__G__ In fact, there’s quite a lot of putting up tents in muddy fields. Last season I was selected to represent Great Britain at both the European and World Championships. Both events were completely different from the UK race scene. (1)___ I was totally in awe, racing with the riders I had been following in magazines. The atmosphere was electric and I finished about mid-pack. Mountain biking is a great sport to be in. People ask me if downhill racing is really scary. I say, ‘Yes it is, and I love it.’ Every time I race I scare myself silly and then say, ‘Yeah let’s do it again. When you’re riding well, you are right on the edge, as close as you can be to being out of control. (2)___. However, you quickly learn how to do it so as not to injure yourself. And it’s part of the learning process as you have to push yourself and try new skills to improve. Initially, downhill racing wasn’t taken seriously as a mountain-biking discipline. (3)___ But things are changing and riders are now realising that they need to train just as hard for downhill racing as they would do for cross-country. The races are run over ground which is generally closer to vertical than horizontal, with jumps, drop- offs, holes, corners and nasty rocks and trees to test your nerves as well as technical skill. At the end of a run, which is between two and three minutes in this country your legs hurt so much they burn. (4)___ But in a race, you’re so excited that you switch off to the pain until you’ve finished. A lot of people think that you need to spend thousands of pounds to give downhill mountain biking a go. (5)___ A reasonable beginner’s downhill bike will cost you around £400 and the basic equipment, of a cycle helmet, cycle shorts and gloves, around £150. Later on you may want to upgrade your bike and get a full-face crash helmet, since riders are now achieving speeds of up to 80 kilometres per hour. PART D. WRITING Section 1: Complete the second sentence without changing the meaning of the original sentence. 1. It is almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine. 6
  7. I cancelled ___. 2. A rather nasty problem has appeared. We’ve come ___. 3. I have called this meeting in order to present the latest sales figures. My purpose ___. 4. For futher information, please send a self-addressed envelope to above address. For futher information can ___. 5. Mrs. Copper says she’s sorry she didn’t attend the meeting yesterday morning. Mrs. Copper sends ___. Section 2: When people grow older they need company but young people find it least preferable to spend time with old people. This is why many opine that older people should live separately. Should old men live with young people together in a family, or should they live in the clubs/retirement home for old men? You should write at least 250 words. You should use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples and relevant evidence. ___THE END___ BEST OF LUCK Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu; Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm. Họ và tên thí sinh: SBD: 7
  8. SỞ GD&ĐT KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Đáp án có 02 trang) PART A. LISTENING (4 pts) Section I. Question 1 – 10. You will hear a lecturer talking about “Business in the Modern World”. Listen and complete the notes below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. (1pt) (0.1pt/item) 1. democratic 2. internal website 3. transparency 4. (company’s) 5. employee first income 6. solution 7. promotion 8. ticket 9. vacation 10. ban Section II. Question 11 – 15. Choose the correct answer A, B or C for each question. (2pts)(0,4pt/item) 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. A Section III. You will hear people talking in five different situations. For questions 16 - 20, choose the best answer (A, B or C). (2pts)(0.4pts/item) 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. C PART B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (5 pts) Section 1: Choose the correct option marked A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (2 pts)(0.1pt/ item) 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. C Section 2: There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find out the mistake and correct it. (1 pt)(0.1pt/ item) - Tìm đúng nhưng không sửa được cho 0,05 điểm 1. parent parent’s 6.true always always true 2. a by 7. enviable envious 3.experience experienced 8. arguing argued 4. How What 9. between with 5. turn turn to 10. of Ø / that Section 3: Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank. (2pts)(0.2pt/item) 1. saltwater 2. established 3. segmented 4. asserting 5. enthusiasts 6. scavengers 7. voracious 8. irreparable 9. nocturnal 10. disturbance PART C. READING (6 pts) Section 1: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that best fits in the blank. (2 pts)(0.2 pt/item) 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. B Section 2: Read the following passage and think of ONE word that best fits in the numbered blank. (2 pts) (0.2 pt/item) 1. stunts 2. opening 3. soldiers 4. litter 5. died 6. starred 7. ages 8. own 9. enjoyed 10. made Section 3: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for each question. (1 pt) (0.2 pt/item) 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A Section 4: You are going to read an article about a woman who is a downhill mountain-bike racer. Five sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A – G the one which fits each gap (1-5). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (1 pt) (0.2 pt/item) 1. C 2. A 3. E 4. B 5. F PART D. WRITING (5 pts) Section 1: Complete the second sentence without changing the meaning of the original sentence. (1 pt) 8
  9. (0.2 pt/item) 1. I cancelled my subscription to that magazine nine months ago. 2. We've come up against a rather nasty problem. 3. My purpose in calling this meeting is to present the latest sales figures. 4. Further information can be obtained by sending a self-addressed envelope to the above address. 5. Mrs. Wilson sends her apologies for not attending/having attended the meeting yesterday morning. Section 2: Essay writing. 4 points Candidates’ essays are evaluated based on the following criteria: Content: 40% (1.6 pts): Arguments are adequately supported (with main ideas, supporting ideas and relevant examples etc.). Language: 30% (1.2 pts): Demonstrate a diverse range of lexical items and grammatical structures. Presentation: 30% (1.2 pts): Write with suitable style, cohesion, coherence. Appropriate word count. THE END 9