Đề thi Olympic môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2012-2013 - Phòng giáo dục và đào tạo huyện Thanh Oai

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  1. PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 6 HUYỆN THANH OAI Năm học: 2012 – 2013 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 04 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 04. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1: Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội - Bằng số: đồng chấm thi ghi) - Bằng chữ: Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: I. PHONETICS: a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (6 0,2=1,2 pt) 1. A. invitation B. intersection C. station D. question 2. A. lives B. misses C. languages D. watches 3. A. down B. brown C. town D. show 4. A. between B. behind C. bakery D. geography 5. A. thank B. thin C. mother D. tooth 6. A. year B. repeat C. meat D. teacher b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others (4 0,2=0,8 pt) 7. A. weather B. idea C. winter D. movies 8. A. morning B. number C. routine D. ruler 9. A. dangerous B. accident C. telephone D. engineer 10. A. favorite B. banana C. tomato D. potato II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0,2=3,0 pts) 11. How often do you do morning exercises in the summer? A. I like it B. I play soccer C. Yes, I do D. I sometimes do 12. We are going to have an English examination April, 21st . A. on B. to C. at D. in 13. There is a lot of in Viet Nam. Our country is very green. A. sun B. sunny C. rainy D. rain 14. My friend, Linh drinks cocacola and beer. A. don’t B. never C. doesn’t D. isn’t 15. is your uncle going to stay here? - about three days. A. How long - For B. How far - For C. How long - At D. How long - From 1
  2. 16. do they go to work every morning? - On foot. A. How B. How far C. How long D. How often 17. The room of my parents is small. “The room of my parents” means: A. my room’s parents B. my room’ parents C. my parents’s room D. my parents’ room 18. There are five in one hand. A. arms B. fingers C. toes D. feet 19. Why don’t we go to the zoo this Sunday morning? A. You are well B. Because I don’t like animals C. That’s a good idea D. Thanks a lot 20. is your father? He is very well, thank you. A. How B. How much C. How many D. How often 21. When it is hot, we often feel quite A. happy B. hungry C. worried D. thirsty 22. In our country, the weather often quickly. A. change B. changes C. is changing D. is going to change 23. My French penpal, Jack can speak six fluently. A. speeches B. countries C. languages D. nationalities 24. What your little sister in the evening? A. do / do B. does / do C. do / does D. does / does 25. I want a good pair of shoes because I always goes in the morning. A. sailing B. swimming C. jogging D. fishing b. Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions. (7 0,2=1,4 pts) 26. I usually go to school by bicycle but today I am going . foot. 27. Is there a flower garden . front of your house? - Yes, there is. 28. My mother wants a sandwich and a glass . orange juice. 29. What would you like . dinner? - I’d like some noodles. 30. The plane flies . .mountains, rivers and towns. 31. What are they doing at the moment? - They are listening . the tape. 32. Elizabeth and Charls are . England. They speak English. c. Write the correct form of the words given in capital letters: (6 0,2=1,2 pts) 33. My school is the one in Thanh Oai District. (OLD) 34. All of us are are very good (STUDY) 35. In our school library, there are four (BOOKSHELF) 36. Hung visits his grandparents a week. (ONE) 37. My house is on the floor of that tall building. (NINE) 38. Nobody in my class is than Trang. (GOOD) d. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (7 0,2=1,4 pts) 39. Look! The plane is flying towards the airport. It (land) . 40. Ha’s father (drive) . his car to the garage at the moment. 41. How your sister (go) . to school every day? - By motorbike, of course. 42. Mr. Tung is a teacher and he (not have). . classes in the afternoon. 43. You mustn’t (eat) . food in this canteen. 44. The Nile River (flow) . to the Mediterranean Sea. 45. Mrs. Thuy is cleaning the windows and doors. Let’s (help) . her. 2
  3. III. READING: a. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (10 0,2=2,0pts) Everyone (46) . oranges. They are quite sweet and juicy. They are in sections so (47) . is very easy to eat them. Some oranges (48) . not have seeds. Some (49) . thick skins and some have thin skins. The orange tree is beautiful. It has a lot of (50) . . leaves. The small white flowers smell very sweet. (51) . orange tree has a lot of flowers and fruit at the same (52) . . "Orange" is both a fruit (53) . a colour. The (54) . of orange is so beautiful that in English we use the name of the fruit (55) . the colour. 46. A. love B. to love C. loves D. loving 47. A. they B. it C. oranges D. its 48. A. do B. does C. is D. are 49. A. have B. wear C. put D. take 50. A. yellow B. green C. red D. blue 51. A. A B. An C. Some D. Ø 52. A. morning B. afternoon C. evening D. time 53. A. but B. or C. and D. with 54. A. colour B. seed C. tree D. leaf 55. A. to B. at C. from D. for b. There is a mistake in each line of the following passage. Find and correct it: (5 0,2 =1.0 pt) Eg: 0. The students is singing a song in their classroom. 0/ are Peter and Bill are brothers. Peter is twelve and Bill is ten. They live with 56. their parents and their dog in a small towns in the south of England. They do not look like each other. Peter is tall and dark and Bill is short 57. and fair. They also like difference things. Peter likes sports but he is not interested in school. He hates Mathematics and History and he never 58. remembers the numbers. Bill likes to goes to school very much. He is quite good at learn English, he reads and writes a lot. Bill can draw very 59. well, too. But he never plays sports. He spends most of his time indoors reading or drawing. He wants to be a 60. writer or a artist in the future. c. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (10 0,2=2,0pts) My eldest brother, Tuyen is (61). . engineer in a big company. He lives in a small apartment on (62). . third floor of a building in Ha Noi. The company is far from his house, so he always goes to work (63). . bus. He leaves home at seven o’clock to get to work (64). . 7.45 a.m. It is Saturday morning now, and he is at home, in bed. (65). . Saturdays he often gets up at a quarter to seven in the (66). . .,then he sits in the living room and (67). . breakfast. On Saturday afternoons, he usually plays tennis or (68). . swimming with some (69). . his friends. On Saturday evenings, he doesn’t stay at (70). . , he usually goes out. 3
  4. IV. WRITING: a. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. (5 0,2 = 1.0 pt) 71. stay / grandparents / am / with / this / I / to / my / going / weekend./ -> 72. out? / do/ want/ you/ when/ what/ you/ to/ say/ go/ -> 73. often/ brother/ his/ listens/ in/ to/ time./ my/music/ free -> 74. I/ to/ to/ every/ city/ buy/ go/ books/ Sunday morning./ the -> 75. good / the / there./ let’s / and / time / mountain / go / have / to / a / -> b. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in brackets so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the word given in any way. (5 0,4=2,0 pts) 76. What about singing and dancing? -> Why don’t . ? 77. Noone in our school is stronger than me. -> I ? 78. What’s your brother’s height? -> How . .? 79. His teacher of English always drives to work. -> His teacher of English always goes .? 80. Peter is 1.80 meters tall. Linda is 1.70 meters tall. -> Linda . . c. Write a composition (about 80 words) to tell about your school: (3,0pts) (don’t show your name, your school or your village): 4
  5. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2012 – 2013 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH I. PHONETICS: a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (6 0,2=1,2 pts) 1. D. question 2. A. lives 3. D. show 4. C. bakery 5. C. mother 6. A. year b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others: (4 0,2=0,8 pt) 7. B. idea 8. C. routine 9. D. engineer 10. A. favorite II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0,2=3,0 pts) 11 –D. 12 –A. 13 –D. 14 –B. 15 –A. I sometimes do on rain never How long - For 16 –A. 17 - D. 18 –B. 19 – C. 20 –A. How my parents’ room fingers That’s a good idea How 21 –D. 22 - B. 23 – C. 24 – B. 25 – C. thirsty changes languages does / do jogging b. Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions: (7 0,2=1,4 pts) 26. on 27. in 28. of 29. for 30. over 31. to 32. from c. Write the correct form of the words given in capital letters to complete the following sentences: (6 0,2=1,2 pts) 33. oldest 34. students 35. bookselves 36. once 37. ninth 38. better d. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (7 0,2=1,4 pts) 39. is going to land 40. is driving 41. does go 42. doesn’t have 43. eat 44. flows 45. help 5
  6. III. READING: a. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (10 0,2=2,0 pts) 46 - C. loves 47 - B. it 48 - A. do 49 - A. have 50 - B. green 51 - B. An 52 - D. time 53 - C. and 54 - A. colour 55 - D. for b. There is a mistake in each line of the following passage. Find and correct it: (5 0,2 =1.0 pt) 56. towns -> town 57. difference -> different 58. goes -> go 59. learn -> learning 60. a -> an c. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (10 0,2=2,0 pts) 61. an 62. the 63. by 64. at 65. On 66. morning 67. has/ eats 68. goes 69. of 70. home IV. WRITING: a. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. (5 0,2 = 1.0 pt) 71. I am going to stay with my grandparents this weekend. 72. What do you say when you want to go out? 73. My brother often listens to music in his free time. 74. I go to the city to buy books every Sunday morning. 75. Let's go to the mountain and have a good time there. b. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in brackets so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the word given in any way. (5 0,4=2,0 pts) 76. Why don’t we sing and dance? 77. I am the strongest (student) in our school. 78. How tall is your brother? 79. His teacher of English always goes to work by car. 80. Linda is shorter than Peter. c. Write a composition (about 80 words) about your school: (Don’t show the name of the school): (3,0pts) The essay must have at least three ideas below. 1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề về ngôi trường. (được 0,5 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày được một số vấn đề liên quan đến ngôi trường nơi em đó đang học như: Hình dáng ngôi trường; số lớp học, số giáo viên, có những gì bên trong và cảnh quan bên ngoài; các hoạt động hàng ngày diễn ra trong trường, lớp, những thành tích nổi bật đã đạt được trong năm học vv (được 2,0 điểm) 3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước hay cảm tưởng của học sinh về ngôi trường đó. 6
  7. (được 0,5 điểm) Họ tên, chữ ký của người coi thi KỲ THI OLYMPIC TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 - Giám thị số 1: Năm học: 2012 - 2013 - Giám thị số 2: MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: tháng .năm 2013 Số báo danh: . Họ và tên thí sinh: Sinh ngày: tháng .năm Nơi sinh: Nam (nữ) Học sinh trường THCS Chú ý: - Thí sinh phải ghi đầy đủ các mục ở phần trên theo sự hướng dẫn của giám thị. - Thí sinh không được ký tên hay dùng bất cứ ký hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi (ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề thi). - Bài thi không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không được viết bằng hai thứ mực. - Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác (kể cả bút xóa). - Trái với các điều trên, bài làm của thí sinh sẽ bị loại. 7