Đề thi tuyển sinh Lớp 10 THPT môn Tiếng Anh năm 2018 - Sở giáo dục và đào tạo Quảng Ninh

Nội dung text: Đề thi tuyển sinh Lớp 10 THPT môn Tiếng Anh năm 2018 - Sở giáo dục và đào tạo Quảng Ninh

1. SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT NĂM 2018 TỈNH QUẢNG NINH ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên) Số báo danh Chữ kí của cán bộ coi thi (Dành cho thí sinh thi vào Trường THPT Chuyên Hạ Long) 1: Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, Không kể thời gian giao đề 2: (Đề thi này có 09 trang) Số phách Họ, tên thí sinh: . Ngày sinh: . Nơi sinh: Học sinh trường: Hội đồng coi thi: Ghi chú: - Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại. - Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển. - Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
2. Số phách Điểm bài thi Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo: Số phách chấm phúc khảo: Bằng số: 1: Bằng chữ: 2: Số phách Điểm bài thi chấm phúc khảo: Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo: chấm phúc khảo: 1: Bằng số: 2: Bằng chữ: HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH PHẦN NGHE HIỂU Bài nghe hiểu gồm 04 phần. Thí sinh nghe và trả lời câu hỏi theo yêu cầu. Thí sinh sẽ được nghe mỗi phần 02 lần. Trước mỗi phần sẽ có thời gian để các thí sinh đọc câu hỏi. A. LISTENING (2.5 points) Part 1. You will hear a head teacher and a teacher discussing a school camping trip. For each question, circle the letter A, B or C for your answer. (0.6 point) 1. Mr. Thomson has just been ___. A. speaking to a class of pupils B. writing reports on the students C. reading about pupils’ progress 2. The camping trip will be held ___. A. over a five- day period B. the following month C. from the 24th to the 26th 3. Jamie’s complaint about last year’s trip was that ___. A. the camp wasn’t big enough B. he was unhappy while at the camp C. he had problems finding the camp 4. The campsite is located ___. A. in the Lake District B. in Carlisle C. beside Lake Brant 5. Jamie thinks the forest will be good for children who ___. A. are used to nature B. live in cities C. like sports 6. Each child will pay ___. A. less than £4 a night B. approximately £5 C. more than £10 1/9
3. Part 2. You will hear a woman talking about flights in a hot air balloon. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. You should write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer (0.7 point) HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHTS Children under 12 must be with (7) ___. All passengers need to be (8) ___. Balloon flights are best when there are (9) ___, no rain and a clear sky. Outdoor clothes and (10) ___ are recommended. Flights travel between 5 and 30 kilometres. Passengers return to the airfield in a (11) ___. Flights are not available in January, February, (12) ___. For (13) ___, phone 0125288492 or visit www.hotairballoons.com. Part 3. You will hear an interview with a student called Sarah Mercer, who is planning to become a weather forecaster. For each question, circle the correct answer A, B or C. (0.6 point) 14. Sarah first became interested in the weather because ___. A. she studied weather in school science lessons B. she had experience of bad weather where she lived C. she saw programmes about weather on TV 15. Whose encouragement made Sarah interested in the weather at home? A. Her mother’s B. Her father’s C. Her grandfather’s 16. Pupils at Sarah’s school club ___. A. provided information to the school for projects B. set up equipment for studying the weather C. produced a book about the weather 17. What mistake did Sarah’s family make during a sailing trip? A. They failed to check weather forecasts regularly. B. They didn’t recognise signs of bad weather coming. C. They hadn’t made preparations for bad weather. 18. Sarah thinks in future she’d like to ___. A. work with a sailing team B. travel abroad for her job C. be a TV weather presenter 19. What kind of weather does Sarah like best? A. When it is shining B. When it is foggy C. When it is raining hard 2/9
4. Part 4. You will hear a boy, Mark, and a girl, Anna, talking about winter sports. While you are listening, decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, put a tick (√) in the box under A for YES. If it is incorrect, put a tick (√) in the box under B for NO. (0.6 point) A B YES NO 20. The amount of snow at the holiday centre made Mark disappointed. 21. It was the first time Mark had tried snowboarding. 22. Mark thinks it’s important to be fit in order to snowboard well. Anna is shocked that some people don’t wear suitable clothes when 23. snowboarding. 24. Mark wants to learn more advanced snowboarding in future. 25. Both Anna and Mark prefer skiing to snowboarding. B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2.0 points) Part 1. Choose the best answer to complete each of the sentences below by circling the letter A, B, C or D. (1.0 point) 1. The doctor sent him to bed, saying he was much ___ to go to work. A. ill enough B. too ill C. very ill D. so ill 2. Smoking is ___ forbidden everywhere in that office. A. strictly B. severely C. hardly D. harshly 3. Mike: “What ___ is your father’s car?” Sarah: “It’s a Honda.” A. name B. make C. mark D. label 4. This carpet was made by ___ so it is very expensive. A. hand B. the hand C. hands D. the hands 5. I don’t know what we are going to ___ if I lose this job. A. live on B. get by C. give away D. grow on 6. It’s a small black dog and ___ to the name of ‘Emily’. A. belongs B. answers C. obeys D. responds 7. I’m sorry you’ve missed the train. It ___ five minutes ago. A. had left B. left C. has left D. was leaving 8. With the start for the penny papers in the 1830’s, the number of people ___ a newspaper rose considerably. A. who reading regularly B. was reading regularly C. regularly reading what D. regularly reading 9. Sarah: “How do I look tonight?” Mike: “Wow! ___ dress you have on.” A. What beautiful B. What a beautiful C. How beautiful D. How a beautiful 10. ___ all data into electronic pulses. A. The computer input unit changes 3/9
5. B. Changing input, the computer unit C. Which changes the computer input unit D. Changes in the computer input unit Part 2. Circle the letter A, B, C or D of the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting. (0.5 point) 1. In the last two decades, Bombay and Madras were developed into the centres of the A B C D Indian film industry. 2. Hippocrates, a famous Greek doctor who lived 2,500 years ago, swore an oath to A B C preserve life and working for the benefit of everyone. D 3. The rise in the price of petrol has effected the transportation business a lot. A B C D 4. Although he is employed in the scientific and technical fields, the metric system is not A B C generally utilized in the United States. D 5. Many deaths associated with fires are not actual caused by the flames, but are rather by A B C the decreased oxygen supply in burning buildings. D Part 3. Use the correct form of the word in capital letters. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided. (0.5 point) Charles Dickens was one of the greatest nineteenth-century English (1) ___. At the time of his death in 1870 NOVEL he was a wealthy man, in contrast to the (2) ___ of POOR his early days. His parents tried their best to look after him but were always in (3) ___ with money. DIFFICULT Eventually, his father owed such a large amount of money that he was sent to prison for three months. Two days after his (4) ___ birthday, Dickens was TWELVE taken away from school by his parents and made to work in a factory. Charles was not only unhappy, but also (5) ___ SHAME of working there, and he would never forget that period of his life. C. READING (3.5 points) Part 1. Fill the gap with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided. (1.0 point) Famine is a prolonged food shortage that (1) ___ widespread hunger and death. Throughout history, famine has struck at least one area of the world (2) ___ few years. Most of the developing nations of Africa, Asia, and Latin America have barely (3) ___ food for their people. Millions in these 4/9
6. countries go (4) ___. When food production or imports drop for any (5) ___, famine may strike and thousands of people may die. Many famines have more than one cause. For example, the great Bengai famine of 1943 in Eastern India was caused by (6) ___ natural and historical events. World War II resulted in a general food shortage and (7) ___ to the cutoff of rice imports from Burma, which had been occupied by the Japanese. Then a cyclone destroyed (8) ___ farm land. Famine struck, and more than 1.5 million persons died. Nearly all famines result from crop failures. The chief causes of crop failure include (9) ___ (prolonged lack of rain), too much rainfall and flooding, and plant disease and pests. Many other factors may also (10) ___ create a famine. Part 2. Read the text and choose the best answer for each gap by circling the letter A, B, C or D. (1.0 point) CHOOSING CLOTHES Are you one of the thousands of people who (1) ___ follow every new fashion that appears? Or are you one of (2) ___ who go to the shops and just buy whatever they can find in their size that suits them? Or perhaps you order from a mail-order catalogue, and then have to send everything back because nothing fits? (3) ___ kind of shopper you are, one thing is certain. Everyone finds clothes important. According to a recent (4) ___, people spend more time either buying clothes, or thinking about buying them, or looking at them in shop (5) ___, than they do on most other products, apart from food. And the (6) ___ is obvious. Clothes are an important part of our (7) ___. At work, you may need to impress a customer, or persuade the boss that you know what you are doing, and clothes certainly help. Well-dressed people, so they (8) ___, get on in the world. And as far as attracting the opposite sex is (9) ___, clothes also play a vital role. If a friend who has been wearing the same old jacket or the same old dress suddenly appears in the latest fashion, you can be sure that romance is in the (10) ___. 1. A. eagerly B. strongly C. patiently D. really 2. A. people B. those C. these D. them 3. A. Whichever B. Whoever C. Whomever D. Whatever 4. A. investigation B. question C. survey D. examination 5. A. centres B. windows C. doors D. sales 6. A. basis B. result C. reason D. consequence 7. A. appearance B. looking C. face D. body 8. A. tell B. talk C. speak D. say 9. A. mentioned B. discussed C. concerned D. said 10. A. air B. sky C. cloud D. wind Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (0.8 point) All animal life on the planet Earth depends on a sufficient supply of oxygen for its day- to-day survival. The trees that dot our landscapes provide a large portion of this supply: trees take carbon dioxide from the surrounding air and in return they create a sizeable amount of oxygen. Ironically, human beings, who cut down large numbers of trees to create land, shelter, and energy, pose the most significant threat to the survival of the world-wide tree population. 5/9
7. But humans are not the only force that threatens the survival of these mighty members of the plant kingdom. Trees, among the oldest and largest organisms on the planet, face many other dangers. Lightning, fire, and other natural disasters, for example, can destroy many square miles of old-growth forest in a matter of hours. Disease causing fungi and insect pests can also eradicate entire populations of trees within a particular region. After humans, however, the factor which most determines whether a particular species of tree will prosper in a given area is climate. In particular, the amount of rainfall and the range of temperatures that a region experiences strongly affects the distribution of tree species. All species of trees have evolved from plants that flourished many centuries ago in the warm and wet tropical regions of the planet. As the distribution of trees has spread to other regions, the differing climates of these regions have effectively limited the types of trees that can live there. The greater the range of temperature and rainfall that a species of tree can withstand, the more adaptable it is and therefore the wider its range of distribution. 1. What is this passage mainly about? A. The importance of the Earth’s oxygen supply B. Humankind’s effect on the environment C. The survival strategies of tree populations D. Dangers facing the Earth’s trees 2. The phrase “sizeable amount” in the passage is closest in meaning to ___. A. diminishing supply B. substantial volume C. large reduction D. breathable portion 3. According to the passage, what is the greatest danger to trees? A. Disease-causing fungi B. Fire C. People D. Lightning 4. The word “eradicate” in the passage is closest in meaning to ___. A. damage B. destroy C. spoil D. harm 5. Where in the passage does the writer list the most examples of dangers to trees? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4 6. According to the passage, rainfall and temperature play a significant role in determining ___. A. the amount of rainfall a plant can survive B. the wildlife that flourishes in tropical regions C. which trees will survive in which regions D. the number of natural disasters in an area 7. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as factors causing the destruction of forests EXCEPT ___. A. human beings B. natural disasters C. fungi D. insecticides 8. It can be inferred from the passage that trees that live only in tropical regions ___. A. are not very adaptable B. can survive wide ranges of temperature C. are not limited by climate D. are widely distributed Part 4. Read an article in which a film critic talks about his work. Seven sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-H the one which fits each gap (1-7). Write your answers in the numbered spaces. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (0.7 point) 6/9
8. FILM CRITIC Writing articles about films for The Front Page was my first proper job. (1) ___. That was how I met Tom Seaton, the first arts editor of The Front Page, who had also written for radio and television. He hired me, but Tom was not primarily a journalist, or he would certainly have been more careful in choosing his staff. (2) ___. There would be a weekly lunch at which we would make our choices from the artistic material that Tom had decided we should cover, though there would also be guests to make the atmosphere sociable. It all felt like a bit of a dream at that time: a new newspaper, and I was one of the team. It seemed so unlikely that a paper could be introduced into a crowded market. It seemed just as likely that a millionaire wanted to help me. (3) ___. In fact, the first time I saw someone reading the newspaper on the London Underground, then turning to a page on which one of my reviews appeared, I didn’t know where to look. Tom’s original scheme for a team of critics for the arts never took off. (4) ___. It turned out, too, that the general public out there preferred to associate a reviewer with a single subject area, and so I chose film. Without Tom’s initial push, though, we would hardly have come up with the present arrangement, by which I write an extended weekly piece, usually on one film. The luxury of this way of working suits me well. I wouldn’t have been interested in the more standard film critic’s role, which involves considering every film that comes out. (5) ___. I would soon be sinking into my seat on a Monday morning with sigh, “What insulting rubbish must I sit through now?” - a style of sigh that can often be heard in screening rooms around the world. The space I am given allows me to broaden my argument-or forces me, in an uninteresting week, to make something out of nothing. But what is my role in the public arena? I assume that people choose what films to go to on the basis of the stars, the publicity or the director. There is also such a thing as loyalty to “type” or its opposite. (6) ___. So if a film review isn’t really a consumer guide, what is it? (7) ___. Nor do I think there should be a certain number of “great” and “bad” films each year. All I have to do is put forward an argument. I’m not a judge, and nor would I want to be. A. It can only rarely happen that someone who hates westerns buys a ticket for one after reading a review, or a love story addict avoids a romantic film because of what the paper says B. I was walking to my office when I realized that a strange man was following me C. Before then I had done bits of reviewing novels for other newspapers, films for a magazine and anything I was asked to do for the radio D. Such was my lack of self-confidence E. I certainly don’t feel I have a responsibility to be “right” about a movie F. At first, his idea was that a team of critics should take care of the art forms that didn’t require specialized knowledge: books, TV, theatre, film and radio G. That’s a routine that would make me stale in no time at all 7/9
9. H. It was a good idea, but we didn’t get together as planned and so everything was done by phone D. WRITING (2.0 points) Part 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the word given. You must use between four and eight words, including the word given. (0.5 point) 1. I couldn’t find my bicycle anywhere. (was) → My bicycle ___ found. 2. I dislike watching old films on television. (do) → I’d rather ___ old films on television. 3. It is certain that you will pass this examination because you’ve been working hard. (bound) → You ___ because you’ve been working hard. 4. I am not used to getting up so early (to) → It is ___so early. 5. Boys often outnumber girls by two to one in classes majoring in Mathematics. (twice) → There ___ in classes majoring in Mathematics. Part 2. Peter, your English penfriend is coming to Quang Ninh for his holiday this summer. Continue with the following letter which you are writing to him to recommend a place in Quang Ninh he should visit during his holiday. Your letter must be about 120-150 words and include the reasons for your recommendation. (1.5 points) Dear Peter, Thank you for your letter I received yesterday morning. I’m glad that you are coming to Quang Ninh this summer. ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ 8/9
10. ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ THE END 9/9