Đề thi học sinh giỏi 3 môn văn hóa cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 8 - Năm học 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề thi học sinh giỏi 3 môn văn hóa cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 8 - Năm học 2019-2020 (Có đáp án)

1. UBND HUYỆN KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI 03 MÔN VĂN HÓA LỚP 8 PHÒNG GD&ĐT CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ THI MÔN: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề gồm 07 trang) PART A: LISTENING (15 pts) Question I. Listen and fill in each blank. (5 pts) In many parts of the United States, large areas of (1) have been made into national parks to protect and preserve the natural beauty of the land. National parks usually contain a variety of scenic features, such as mountains, caves, lakes, rare animals and plants. Today, there are 52 national parks in the United States, covering approximately 3 per cent of the total land area of the country. National parks are open to the public and have million of (2) every year. Many national parks, however, are in danger of being (3) Rare animals in national parks are killed or hunted for fur, skin or other parts. Trees are cut down for wood. Large areas of national parks also experience devastating fires caused by careless people. The increasing number of visitors is harming the parks due to the (4) from their vehicles. If these (5) are not solved immediately, and if there is not enough money for the parks’ staff and maintenance of their resources, many national parks will be completely destroyed. Question II. Listen to Tyrone calling the staff at his local swimming pool. Decide if each sentence is T (True) or F ( False) . (5 pts) T F 6.There are four different age groups that play water polo. 7. Tyrone wants to join the under 14s club. 8. The under 16s water polo team train three times a week. 9. Water polo matches are played on Saturdays. 10. Training for the water polo team starts this week. Question III. Listen to Sue talking to her friend, Jim, about a new sports center. For questions 11 – 15, choose A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversation twice. (5pts) 11. Which bus goes to the sports center? A. 15 B. 18 C. 25 12. From Monday to Saturday, the sports center is open from A. 6 a.m B. 7 a.m C. 9 a.m 13. If Sue goes swimming, she must take A. Soap B. a swimming hat C. a towel 14. At the sports center, you can buy A. sandwiches B. fruit C. drinks 15. Jim and Sue are going to the sports center next . A. Wednesday B. Thursday C. Saturday PART B: PHONETICS ( 5 pts ) Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3 points) 1
2. 16. A. precious B. preparation C. pretty D. repetition 17. A. architect B. mechanic C. choir D. parachute 18. A.practice B. cracker C. bracelet D. tractor Question II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is placed differently from the others. (2 points) 19. A. prediction B. compulsory C. intelligent D. judgement 20. A. abroad B. visit C. prefer D. happen PART C: LEXICAL & GRAMMAR ( 30 pts) Question I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. (10 pts) 21. You need more exercise, so you should basketball . A. carry out B. take in C. turn up D. take up 22. Don’t set off firework too closely to your home, ?. A. do you B. don’t you C. will you D. won’t you 23. A man is walking to me. man is carrying parcel. A. A / the B. The / a C. Ø / the D. The / Ø 24. Million of people have with virus SARS COVID 2 in over six months. A. gone up B. got down C. gone down D. suffered 25. My father work late tonight. His boss ordered him to stay until 10 A. must B. have to C. has to D. should 26. workers were sent to the area immediately but no villagers survived when the landslide happened A. Rescue B. Help C. Assistance D. Volunteer 27. They received advice from their parents that they became successful. A. So good B. such a good C. So good an D. Such good 28. Last year, there was a big typhoon in our area. It caused extensive damage to our A. savings B. wealth C. furniture D. property 29. The Sydney Opera House is an of Australia’s creative and technical achievement. A. orchestra B. emblem C. icon D. armorial 30. Her father supports her finance. , she couldn’t conduct these experiments . A. so B. therefore C. nevertheless D. otherwise 2
3. Question II. Give the correct forms of words in the brackets (5 points). 31. British airway apologized for the of the 5.40 to Bath. (CANCEL) 32. I have just bought a replacement for one of my favorites which (MYSTERY) disappeared 33. The of the Toyota are widely consumed in Vietnam (PRODUCE) 34. Many people in the village have cholera because they drink (TREAT) water 35. He enjoys with friends and it costs nothing. (SOCIAL) 36. His worries his parents the most. (CONTROL) 37.There are a few in the village after a sudden tornado. (SURVIVE) Question III. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the sentences below. (8 pts) 38. Our beautiful forests (destroy) if we do nothing to preserve them. 39. As soon as Mr John arrived d at the airport, he realized that he ( leave) his passport at home 40. Don’t ring me between 8 and 9 tomorrow. I (have) a very important meeting then. 41. Sarah said that she ( work ) on a project of charity in Africa then. 42. It’s high time something (do) to prevent traffic jams in big cities . 43. Were you in my position , what you (do) ? 44. His greatest ambition is (choose) to take part in the Olympic Games 2020 in Japan. 45. She is looking forward to ( invite) to Linda’s birthday party next Sunday. Question IV: There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Choose the underlined part that needs correcting and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (5 pts) 46. Preserving natural resources mean reserving them for our future. A B C D 47. The earthquake occurred at midday when many people had lunch A B C D 48. No sooner had I reached the central city than it rained very hardly . A B C D 49. Six people who are reported to have trapped in collapsed buildings have been freed so far A B C D 50. Your brother hardly goes to work by bus, doesn’t he? A B C D PART D: READING (30 pts) Question I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. (10 points) Speech is one of the most important (51) of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises. To talk and also to (52) by 3
4. other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use combinations of (53) that everyone agrees stand for a particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language properly is very (54) The basic (55) of English is not very large, and only about 2000 words are needed to speak it quite (56) But the more words you know, the more ideas you can (57) and the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the (58) thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we (59) the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (60) whether we are pleased of angry, for instance. 51. A. ways B. reasons C. rules D. tests 52. be examined B. be talk C. be understood D. be spoken 53. A. sounds B. languages C. systems D. talks 54. A. important B. expensive C. simple D. easy 55. A. word B. vocabulary C. grammar D. structure 56. A. good B. fluent C. well D.perfect 57. A. grow B. need C. pass D. express 58. A. most B. main C. certain D. full 59. A send B. talk C. say D. pass 60. A. asks B. understands C. knows D. shows Question II. Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 points) One of the most urgent environmental (61)___ in the world today (62)___ the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human (63)___. But acid rain, industrial pollution and garbage have (64)___ many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (65)___ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest (66)___ in the world. It (67)___ a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist anywhere else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of industrial effluent (68)___ pour into the lake everyday. Even where law existed, the government (69)___ not have the power to enforce them. Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea occupies 1% of the world’s water surface. But it is the dumping ground for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 (70___ regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles off-shore. 4
5. Question III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (10 pts) Culture is a word in common use with complex meanings, and is derived, like the term broadcasting, from the treatment and care of the soil and of what grows on it. It is directly related to cultivation and the adjectives cultural and cultured are part of the same verbal complex. A person of culture has identifiable attributes, among them a knowledge of and interest in the arts, literature, and music. Yet the word culture does not refer solely to such knowledge and interest nor, indeed, to education. At least from the 19th century onwards, under the influence of anthropologists and sociologists, the word culture has come to be used generally both in the singular and the plural (cultures) to refer to a whole way of life of people, including their customs, laws, conventions, and values Distinctions have consequently been drawn between primitive and advanced culture and cultures, between elite and popular culture, between popular and mass culture, and most recently between national and global cultures. Distinctions have been drawn too between culture and civilization; the latter is a word derived not, like culture or agriculture, from the soil, but from the city. The two words are sometimes treated as synonymous. Yet this is misleading. While civilization and barbarism are pitted against each other in what seems to be a perpetual behavioural pattern, the use of the word culture has been strongly influenced by conceptions of evolution in the 19th century and of development in the 20th century. Cultures evolve or develop. They are not static. They have twists and turns. Styles change. So do fashions. There are cultural processes. What, for example, the word cultured means has changed substantially since the study of classical (that is, Greek and Roman) literature, philosophy, and history ceased in the 20th century to be central to school and university education. No single alternative focus emerged, although with computers has come electronic culture, affecting kinds of study, and most recently digital culture. As cultures express themselves in new forms not everything gets better or more civilized. The multiplicity of meanings attached to the word made and will make it difficult to define. There is no single, unproblematic definition, although many attempts have been made to establish one. The only non-problematic definitions go back to agricultural meaning (for example, cereal culture or strawberry culture) and medical meaning (for example, bacterial culture or penicillin culture). Since in anthropology and sociology we also acknowledge culture clashes, culture shock, and counter-culture, the range of reference is extremely wide. 71. According to the passage, the word culture___. A. is related to the preparation and use of land for farming B. develops from Greek and Roman literature and history C. comes from a source that has not been identified D. derives from the same root as civilization does 72. It is stated in paragraph 1 that a cultured person___. A. has a job related to cultivation B. takes care of the soil and what grows on it C. has knowledge of arts, literature, and music D. does a job relevant to education 73. The author remarks that culture and civilization are the two words that___. A. share the same word formation pattern 5
6. B. are both related to agriculture and cultivation C. have nearly the same meaning D. do not develop from the same meaning 74. It can be inferred from the passage that since the 20th century___. A. schools and universities have not taught classical literature, philosophy, and history B. classical literature, philosophy, and history have been considered as core subjects C. classical literature, philosophy, and history have not been taught as compulsory subjects D. all schools and universities have taught classical literature, philosophy, and history 75. The word “attributes” in paragraph 1 most likely means___. A. aspects B. fields C. qualities D. skills 76. The word “static” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “___”. A. regular B. balanced C. unchanged D. dense 77. Which of the following is NOT stated in the passage? A. Anthropology and sociology have tried to limit the references to culture B. . Distinctions have been drawn between culture and civilization. C. The word culture can be used to refer to a whole way of life of people D. The use of the word culture has been changed since the 19th century 78. It is difficult to give the definitions of the word culture EXCEPT for its___. A. agricultural and medical meanings B. historical and figurative meanings C. philosophical and historical meanings D. sociological and anthropological meanings 79. Which of the following is NOT true about the word culture? A. It is a word that cannot be defined. B. Its use has been considerably changed C. It differs from the word civilization D. It evolves from agriculture 80. The passage mainly discusses___. A. the distinction between culture and civilization B. the figurative meanings of the word culture C. the derivatives of the word culture D. the multiplicity of meanings of the word culture PARTE: WRITING (20 pts) Question I. Rewrite each of the following sentences, beginning as shown, so that its meaning does not change. (5 pts) 81. Her father asked her if she would go out with her friends. Her father asked her “ ?” 82. It might be a good idea to use honey instead of sugar. Why ___. 83. Jim used to swim more skillfully than he does now. Jim doesn’t 84. In my opinion that you should take more exercise. If I 6
7. 85. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. Against Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given. (5 pts) 86. Many aquatic animals and plants died because the water was polluted. (RESULTED) The polluted .of many aquatic animals and plants. 87. Oil was slowly covering the sand of the beach. (WITH) The sand of the beach oil. 88. “I wasn’t there at the time”. he said. (DENIED) He at the time. 89. Graham spends all his time doing research. (DEVOTED)  Graham has doing research. 90. “Is Peter likely to change his mind?” Rob asked. (CHANCE)  “Is there changing his mind?” Rob asked Question III. Write a paragraph (120- 150 words) on the following topic (10 pts) Do you agree or disagree with this statement: “Health is the most important in everyone’s life”. Give your reasons. THE END Họ và tên thí sinh:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ; Số báo danh:. . . . . . . . . . . 7
8. UBND HUYỆN KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI 03 MÔN VĂN HÓA LỚP 8 PHÒNG GD&ĐT CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI MÔN: Tiếng Anh PART A: LISTENING (15 pts) Question I. (5 pts) 1. land 2. visitors 3. destroyed 4. pollution 5.problems Question II. (5 pts) 5. T 6. F 7. F 8. T 9. F Question III. (5 pts) 11.B 12. A 1 3. C 1 4. A 15. B PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts) Question I. (3 pts) 16. C 17 D 18 C Question II. (2 pts) 19 D 20 C PART B: LEXICAL & GRAMMAR (30 pts) Question I. (10 pts) 21. D 26. A 22. C 27. D 23. B 28. D 24. C 29. C 25. C 30. D Question II. Give the correct forms of words in the brackets (7pts) 31. cancellation 35. socializing 32. mysteriously 36. uncontrollability 33. products 37. survivors 34. untreated Question III. (8 pts) 38. Will be destroyed 42. was done 39. had left 43. would you do 40. will be having 44. to be chosen 41. was working 45. being invited Question IV: Error identification (5 points) 46. B 47. D 49. D 49. B 50. D PART D: READING (30 pts) 8
9. Question I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. (10pts) 51 A 56. C 52 C 57. D 53. A 58. B 54. A 59. C 55. B 60. D Question II. Gap filling (10 points) , 61. problems 66. lakes 62. is 67. contains 63. right / need 68. which 64. made 69. did 65. of 70. countries Question III. (10 pts) 71. A 76. C 72. C 77. A 73. D 78. A 74. C 79. A 75. C 80. D PART D: WRITING (20 points) Question I. (5 pts) 81. Her father asked her: “ Will you go out with your friends?” 82. Why don’t you/we try using/ use honey instead of sugar? 83. Jim doesn’t swim as skillfully as he used to. 84. If I were you I would take more exercise. 85. Against everyone’s expectation, he lost Question II. (5 pts) 86. The polluted water resulted in the death of many aquatic animals and plants 87. The sand of the beach was slowly being covered with oil. 88. He denied being there at the time. 89. Graham has devoted all his time to doing research. 90. Is there any chance of Peter changing his mind? Question III. Write a paragraph (120- 150 words) on the following topic(10 points) Do you agree or disagree with this statement: “Health is the most important in everyone’s life”. Give your reasons. Marking scheme The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. THE END 9