Đề thi Olympic môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 7 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Phòng GD và ĐT Thanh Oai (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề thi Olympic môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 7 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Phòng GD và ĐT Thanh Oai (Có đáp án)

1. PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7 HUYỆN THANH OAI Năm học: 2015 - 2016 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1: Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội - Bằng số: đồng chấm thi ghi) - Bằng chữ: Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) MY MOTHER My mother does so many things. She has a job at a (1) . store; she cooks our meals; she cleans the house; she feeds the pets, and she still finds time to (2) . with us. My mother is always busy, but she says that her (3) . time is time that she spends with us. My mother works from Monday to Friday. When she comes home from work, she makes (4) . for supper. We usually do the dishes, so that she won't have to do them. After supper she helps us with our (5) ., or she sits down to watch television. Some (6) . she goes shopping, and she takes whoever wants to go with her. Mothers are a little bit of everything. My mother is like a (7) . when she helps us with our homework. She is like a nurse when she looks after us when we're (8) She is like a cook when she makes meals for us. She says that (9) . the house is her least favorite thing. She says that the house gets dirty again right (10) . you clean it. She gets my father, my brothers, sister and me to help her with the cleaning. My mother (11) . all our clothes, and sometimes she irons them if they need it. My mother says that there are not enough hours in a day. We try to help my mother as (12) . as we can. There is a lot of work involved in keeping a home neat and organized. (13) . of my friends' mothers work. Mothers are the people who you go to when you need to be comforted. Mothers are the people who can (14) . you feel better. I'm glad that I have the mother that I have. My mother is caring and funny. She is fun to be (15) -> Keys: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 1
2. PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16 A. public B. cucumber C. uniform D. during 17 A. apartment B. toothache C. headache D. stomachache 18 A. celebration B. education C. question D. collection 19 A. returned B. decided C. remembered D. played 20 A. chemistry B. machine C. mechanic D. character -> Keys: 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. anniversary B. education C. direction D. destination 22. A. delicious B. altogether C. decorate D. grandmother 23. A. audience B. dislike C. contest D. cartoon 24. A. lifestyle B. banana C. product D. document 25 A. beautiful B. amazing C. different D. lovely -> Keys: 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. The visitors prefer colorful dances in Thailand . shadow pupppet shows in Indonesia. A. to B. as C. for D. than 27. Some scientists have to spend most of their lives . at rocks. A. look B. to look C. looked D. looking 28. Every girl ought to learn . to cook meals. A. how B. when C. what D. which 29. How long does it . you to get to your school by motorbike? A. want B. take C. want D. get 30. Now, my new friend is used . the busy roads on her street. A. to cross B. to crossing C. for crossing D. crossing 31. You should know that Fluoride toothpaste helps . tooth decay. A. prevent B. preventing C. for preventing D. with prevent 32. We can’t cross the street outside the . A. sidewalk B. roadsign C. pavement D. zebra crossing 33. I don’t like durians, and . do my close classmates, Hung and Cuong. A. either B. neither C. so D. too 34. There are two churches in the town and of them are extremely old. A. each B. all C. both D. most 35. All the members in my family . healthy after the summer vacation. A. looked B. were seeming C. were looking D. were appearing -> Keys: 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 2
3. II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 36. Nowadays, Television is one of the cheapest forms of . ENTERTAIN not only in our country but also in all over the world. 37. For me, I think the most . idea is to go to Ha Long SENSE Bay by train. 38. As you can see, words in a dictionary are always in . ALPHABET order. 39. Oh! It’s so . today! It’s too wet and cold. I hate this PLEASURE kind of weather so much. 40. Two days ago, I received an . to have dinner in a INVITE very big restaurant in Hanoi from my friend, Nam. -> Keys: 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 41. If we have enough money, we (travel) . around the world. 42. Why you (leave) . the party early last night? 43. Ba: Would you like me (turn) . off the fan, Huy? Huy: No, thanks. I can do it myself. 44. My form teacher always advises us (brush) . our teeth at least twice a day, after having and after dinner. 45. What about (go) to Ao Vua in Ba Vi this wekend? - Good idea! -> Keys: 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. IV. Fill in each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. In my village, so many people – the old and the young take part . jogging every morning and early in the evening. 47. My father says that we can’t eat and watch TV . the same time. It’s not good for our stomachache. 48. Who is better . speaking English, Hoa or Lan? 49. Last week, we bought a lot of souvenirs . our friends and relatives when we were in Da Lat for a week. 50. The blue cap looked very beautiful. My little brother tried it . but it didn’t fit him at all. -> Keys: 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 3
4. PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) English is spoken as a mother tongue in many countries. In the United States of America, the national language is (51) . English. Four hundred years ago, some English people sailed to North America to live and they brought the (52) . language to this new country. Now in the USA, people speak (53) . English. Most of the words are the (54) . in American English and in British English, but American people say some English words not as people (55) . in England. Canada is (56) . the North of the United States of America. It is the larger (57) . the United States. In Canada, many people (58) . English because they also came from England many years (59) . But in some parts of Canada, people speak (60) . because the people living in these parts came from France. 51. A. as B. like C. also D. not 52. A. French B. English C. Chinese D. Canadian 53. A. British B. Chinese C. Russian D. American 54. A. various B. same C. similar D. like 55. A. do B. say C. talk D. speak 56. A. to B. from C. on D. in 57. A. than B. as C. more D. less 58. A. say B. tell C. talk D. speak 59. A. there B. later C. ago D. here 60. A. France B. French C. Russian D. Italian -> Keys: 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) Mark Twain is a famous American writer. His (61) . was Samuel Longhorn Clemens and “Mark Twain” was (62) . pen-name. Samuel Clemens was born in a small town (63) . the Mississippi river in the USA. The boy (64) . many friends at school and when he became a writer, he described them in his stories. (65) . Samuel was twelve, his father died and the boy began to work and learned the (66) . of a printer. Samuel always (67) . to be a sailor and when he was twenty, he found work on a river boat. After some time he (68) . the boat and went to live in California. Here he began to write short (69) . under the name of Mark Twain. He sent (70) . to newspapers. The readers liked his stories very much. -> Keys: 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 4
5. III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): CAMPFIRE SAFETY Sitting around a buring campfire is a fun way to relax after a day of hiking. Unluckily, many campers don’t know how to keep their campfires safe. Forests are easy to catch fire but it is extremely difficult to stop a forest fire. Each year, forest fires burn plants, kill animals, destroy the environment and put the lives of people in danger. It is important that when you have a fire, you should make it a safe fire. These are some guidelines to remember: 1. Choose a safe place for your fire. Move all things easy to catch fire at least one meter away from your campfire. 2. When the campfire is burning, someone of your group should watch it to make sure the fire does not spread. 3. Have a shovel or a fire-extinguisher ready in case you need to put the fire out. 4. When you don’t want to used the fire anymore, pour water on the fire until it is completely off. Statements T F 71. Some campers do not know how to keep their campfires safe. 72. When a forest burn, It will burn plants, kill animals, destroy the environment and put people in danger. 73. When the campfire is burning, someone should take care of it to stop the fire to spread in time. 74. When do not want to use the fire any more, we should cover it with green leaves. 75. We should know how to keep our campfires safe because Forests are easy to catch fire. -> Keys: 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) Statements Your corrections 76. My teacher, Mr. Smith, is a more slower and more careful driver 76. than we are. 77. We have so many modern machines today and I think in the future, 77. we will have fewer work to do but more money to spend. 78. It is not easy for all of us, especially for the old men and women, to 78. learning how to use a computer. 79. Three years ago, my best friend, Tony, couldn’t speak Chinese and 79. Tan couldn’t, neither. 80. Mom! There is not nothing in the refrigerator. Let’s go to the 80. market and buy some now. 5
6. II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, beginning with the words given: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. The Japanese bicycle is too expensive for my father to buy. -> The Japanese bicycle is not . . . 82. Hung’s grandfather couldn’t enjoy the meal because of the stomachache. -> The stomachache prevented 83. Remember to turn off all the lights and fans before going to school! -> Don’t . . . 84. My eldest brother didn’t go to school this morning because of his sickness. -> Because my eldest brother 85. For us - Playing video games is more interesting than watching television. -> We prefer . . III. Write a passage (at least 150 words) about your favourite subject: (3,0pts) (Don’t show your proper name,your teacher’s name, your address or your school) 6
7. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC: 2015 – 2016 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 1. dress 2. spend 3. favorite 4. something 5. homework 6. nights 7. teacher 8. ill 9. cleaning 10. after 11. washes 12. much 13. Most 14. make 15. around PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16. A. public 17. A. apartment 18. C. question 19. B. decided 20. B. machine II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. C. direction 22. A. delicious 23. A. audience 24. B. banana 25. B. amazing PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. A. to 27. D. looking 28. A. how 29. B. take 30. B. to crossing 31. A. prevent 32. D. 33. B. neither 34. C. both 35. A. looked zebra crossing II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 36. entertainment 37. sensible 38. alphabetical 39. unpleasant 40. invitation III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 41. will travel 42. did leave 43. to turn 44. to brush 45. going IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. in 47. at 48. at 49. for 50. on PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 51. C. also 52. B. English 53. D. American 54. B. same 55. B. say 56. A. to 57. A. than 58. D. speak 59. C. ago 60. B. French II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 61. name 62. his 63. on 64. had 65. When 66. job/career/ 67. wanted/ 68. left 69. stories 70. them profession wished III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): 71. F 72. T 73. T 74. F 75. T 7
8. PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) 76. more slower 77. fewer 78. to learning 79. neither 80. not nothing -> slower -> less -> to learn -> either -> not anything -> nothing II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, beginning with the words given: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. The Japanese bicycle is not cheap enough for my father to buy. 82. The stomachache prevented Hung’s grandfather from enjoying the meal. 83. Don’t forget to turn off all the lights and fans before going to school! 84. Because my eldest brother was sick, he didn’t go to school this morning. 85. We prefer playing games to watching television. III. Write a passage (at least 150 words) about your favourite subject: (3,0pts) (Don’t show your proper name, your address or your school) Bài viết phải bao gồm những ý sau: 1. Tiêu đề + Mở bài: Bài viết phải có tiêu đề bài và phần mở bài, học sinh nêu được ý chung về môn học mà em yêu thích nhất là gì. (được 0,5 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày lý do hay điều gì dẫn tới việc yêu thích môn học đó, những cố gắng, việc làm, hạn chế hay thành công gì từ môn học vv (được 2,0 điểm) 3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước. (được 0,5 điểm) Chú ý: Bài viết không được nêu tên riêng của học sinh, tên giáo viên dạy, tên nơi ở, tên trường học. Nếu có thì bài sẽ không được tính điểm. 8