Tổng hợp đề thi HSG tiếng Anh 10 (Kèm đáp án)

Nội dung text: Tổng hợp đề thi HSG tiếng Anh 10 (Kèm đáp án)

1. ĐỀ SỐ 1 SỞ GD&ĐT KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10 THPT ĐỀ THI MễN: TIẾNG ANH ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT (Dành cho học sinh THP khụng chuyờn) (Đề thi gồm 06 trang) Thời gian thi: 180 phỳt, khụng kể thời gian giao đề PART I: LISTENING SECTION 1. Questions 1 – 5 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D 1. What does her bag look like? 2. What time was it when the bag was stolen? 3. Where was she when the bag was stolen? A at the shopping centreB at the cinema C by the supermarket D at the movies 4. What was in the bag? A wallet, passport and camera B passport, traveler’s cheques and pens C passport, traveler’s cheques D traveler’s cheques, wallet and pens 5. The woman is ___ A at a conference B on holidayC workingD visiting family
2. Section 2. Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. CAR INSURANCE Example: Answer: Name: Patrick Jones Address: 27 ___ (1) Road, Greendale Contact number: 730453 Occupation: ___ (2) Size of car engine: 1200cc Type of car: Manufacturer: Hewton Model: ___ (3) Year: 1997 Previous insurance company: ___ (4) Star Any insurance in the last five years? Yes  No  If yes, give brief details: Car was ___ (5) in 1999 Name(s) of other driver(s): Simon ___ (6) Relationship to main driver: Brother-in-law Uses of car: - social - Traveling to ___ (7) Start date: 31 ___(8) Recommended insurance arrangement Name of company: Red ___ (9) Annual cost: $ ___ (10) PART II. PHONETICS I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below 1. A. random B. canal C. many D. anaesthetic 2. A. provide B. product C. production D. procedure 3. A. death B. ease C. breath D. leather 4. A. ambitious B. background C. humanitarian D. journalist 5. A. turn B. suburb C. curry D. resurface II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below 1. A. powerful B. composer C. musician D. traditional 2. A. lyrical B. emotion C. favorite D. classical 3. A. entertain B. atmosphere C. serious D. joyfulness 4. A. understand B. appearance C. remember D. employer 5. A. nation B. nature C. nationality D. national
3. PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. 1. Those interested in the post of Assistant Manager are requested to apply ___. A. as a person B. in person C. as persons D. by person 2. I don’t care ___ you go or not. A. where B. when C. why D. whether 3. If it wasn’t you who took my pen, it must have been ___. A. somebody B. somebody else C. another one D. anybody 4. Did the man ___ by the committee accept the job? A. appointing B. appointed C. was appointed D. to appoint 5. Don’t leave your clothes ___ about on the bedroom floor. A. lie B. lay C. lying D. laying 6. She raced by in a car, with her hair ___ behind. A. streamed B. stream C. streams D. streaming 7. I had my younger brother ___ the newspaper to me while I was abroad. A. to send B. sent C. send D. sending 8. Joe, I am inclined ___ Appiah’s complicity in the big fraud. A. about believing B. to believe C. for believing D. in believing 9. Now listen to me John. As far as your examination results are concerned, you needn’t worry so much, ___? A. isn’t it B. need you C. do you D. aren’t they 10. His arrogance makes him ___ whenever he goes. A. hateB. hated C. to hate D. hating II. The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (0) has been done as an example. Write your answers in the numbered blanks below After an absence in thirty years, I decided visiting my old school again. I had expected to find changes, but no a completely different building. As I walked up the school drive, I wondered for a moment if I had come to right address. The grimy, red brick fortress with their tall windows that had looked up grimly on the playground and playing fields had swept away. In its place stood a bright, modern block risen from the ground on great concrete stilts. A huge expanse of glass extending across the face of the building, and in front, there was a well-kept lawn where previous there had been untidy gravel yard. Answers: 0. in of III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. 1. Without a fridge, fresh food will go ___ very quickly. 2. I haven’t heard___ Mandy since she wrote in July. 3. This service is free ___ charge. 4. They went ahead contrary ___ my advice. 5. The monk told me that the old woman had not really dies. He said that she simply passed ___ her next life 6. BBC stands ___ British Broadcasting Corporation 7. When I was looking through my papers, I came ___ this picture 8. The taxi driver decided to go ___ duty as he was beginning to feel sleepy. 9. The band was ___ the verge of stardom. 10. Jim won’t be coming tonight because he’s feeling a bit ___ the weather. IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided below
4. 1. The situation is so ___ (CHAOS) in some countries now that it is difficult to see any solution. 2. Good friends can enrich the quality of our lives ___ (MEASURE). 3. Computers are now considered ___ (DISPENSE) in the business world. 4. Due to ___ (ELECTRIC) the difference between urban life and rural life is more and more reduced. 5. I will resign if you continue (REGARD) ___ what I say 6. She was late as she (ESTIMATE)___ how much time she’d need 7. Kenneth gave her child a (HAND)___ of sweets 8. Politeness is one thing. Real kindness is another. You must learn to (DIFFERENT)___ the two 9. He’s the most unpleasant, ___ (MANNER) person I’ve ever met. 10. I can’t stand out little boy. He’s really ___ (ANNOY). PART IV. READING I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space Stress-related hair loss When stress levels become so high that they affect the immune system it can have a profound effect on the body and the hair. Hair loss itself causes immense stress and then it can become a vicious (1)___. Bonnie Kinnear, 50s, housewife: “Last year my life was quite stressful due to my husband’s high-profile career being constantly in the (2) ___.At this time I began to develop an (3) ___ scalp which was wrongly diagnosed as psoriasis, for which I was prescribed steroids. Over the next two months my scalp become worse, and hair began to fall out, leaving (4) ___ patches, which was devastating. Having to look good and be a support to my famous husband was stressful because wherever we went people would look at us. I had lost at (5) ___ one third of my hair and, in (6) ___, visited a high-profile Mayfair trichologist. Without any diagnosis I was ordered to buy Ê300 worth of products and my head was massaged by a girl who proceeded to turn my hair into what is (7) ___ as ‘bird’s-nest syndrome’. It took four hours to (8) ___. My GP convinced me to seek help from Andrew Bernie. I was diagnosed with a stress- triggered (9) ___ where the skin cells multiply fast, grow down the hair shaft and bind with sebaceous matter to strangle the hair. I visit Andrew regularly for treatments. I am also trying to (10) ___ my stress levels, which is easier now my hair is returning.’ 1. A cycle B effect C closure D circle 2. A daylight B spotlight C searchlight D starlight 3. A intense B enlarged C inflamed D inflicted 4. A empty B bald C dark D hairy 5. A once B all C least D first 6. A reply B fun C hope D desperation 7. A supposed B known C seen D referred 8. A replace B untangle C return D reset 9. A state B symptom C outcome D condition 10.A destroy B assess C manage D measure II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.
5. A Success Story At 19, Ben Way is already a millionaire and one of a growing number of teenagers ___ (1) have made their fortune through the Internet. ___ (2) makes Ben's story all the more remarkable is that he is dyslexic, and was told by teachers ___ (3) his junior school that he would never be able to read or write properly. "I wanted to prove them wrong", says Ben, creator and director of Way search, a net search engine which can be used to find goods ___ (4) online shopping malls. When he was eight, his local authorities provided him ___ (5) a PC to help with schoolwork. Although he was unable to read the manuals, he had a natural ___ (6) with the computer, and encouraged by his father, he soon began charging people E10 an hour for his knowledge and skills. At the age of 15 he set up his own computer consultancy, Quad Computer, which he ran from his bedroom, two years later he left school ___ (7) devote all his time to business. "By this time the company had grown and I needed to take ___ (8) a couple of employees to help me," says Ben. “That enabled me to start doing business with bigger companies.” It was his ability to consistently ___ (9) difficult challenges that led him to win the You Entrepreneur of the Year award in the same year that he formed Way search, and he has recently signed a deal worth Ê25 million with a private investment company, which will finance ___ (10) search engine. III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter. Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”. 1. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage? A. Sinter Klaas B. Saint Nicholas C. A German D. Dutch settlers 2. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a ___. A. tall man who could walk through the air B. fat, jolly, old man C. religious figure D. fat man riding a white horse 3. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as ___. A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter B. a good old man with less religious character C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas. D. a jolly man on horseback. 4. Who was Black Peter? A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas C. one of the disobedient children B. an elf who rode a white horse D. a popular traditional figure
6. 5. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”? A. symbols of a person B. natural qualities C. effects D. outer appearance 6. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from? A. the North Pole B. Europe C. North America D. the City of New York 7. 1823 was mentioned as a year when ___. A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem. B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular. C. Saint Nicholas visited New York. D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed 8. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem, A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one. B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly. C. Santa Claus liked poetry. D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh. 9. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that___ A. the New York Sun was popular with children. B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time. C. newspapers are unreliable. D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun. 10. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures. B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas. C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America. D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter. PART V. WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it 1. Someone stole the old lady’s handbag. The old lady was ___. 2. A true story forms the basis of Mary’s new novel. Mary’s new novel ___. 3.If you have completed your test, you can go home. Get ___. 4. The employee insisted on being given a full bonus. Nothing but ___ 5. ‘I didn’t harm anybody!’ cried the accused. The accused ___. II. There is a fact that a number of parents now increasingly desire to send their children to study overseas. What are the reasons for this trend? You should write a paragraph of about 150 words on this topic. ĐÁP ÁN Total: 130 pts
7. PART I: LISTENING Section 1. (10pts) 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5.B Section 2 (10pts) 1. Bank 2. Dentist 3. Sable 4. Northern 5. stolen 6. Paynter 7. work 8. January 9. Flag 10. 450 PART II. PHONETICS I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5pts) 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5pts) 1.A 2.B 3.A 4.A 5.C PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts) 1. B 2.D 3.B 4.B 5.C 6.D 7.C 8.B 9.B 10.B II. The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (0) has been done as an example. Write your answers in the numbered blanks below (10pts) 1. visiting >to visit 2. no > not 3. right address >the right address 4. their > its 5. up > down 6. had swept > had been swept 7. risen > raised 8.extending > extended 9. previous > previously 10. untidy gravel yard > an untidy gravel yard III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage.(10pts) 1. off 2. from 3. of 4. to 5. into 6. for 7. across 8. off 9. on 10. under IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided below (10pts) 1. chaotic 2. 3. indispensable 4. electrification 5. disregarding immeasurably 6.underestimated 7. handful 8. differentiate 9. ill/bad- 10. annoying mannered PART IV. READING I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space (10pts)
8. 1.B 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.B 6.C 7.C 8.D 9.D 10.A II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts) 1. who 2. what 3. at 4. in 5.with 6. ability 7. to 8.on 9. overcome 10. his III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (10pts) 1.D 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.D 8.D 9.B 10.A PART V. WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it (10pts) 1. was robbed of her hand bag. 2. is based on a true story. 3. your test completed/ finished and you can go home. 1. a full bonus would satisfy the employee. 4. denied causing/having caused harm to anybody. II. There is a fact that a number of parents now increasingly desire to send their children to study overseas. What are the reasons for this trend? You should write a paragraph of about 150 words on this topic. (20pt) Marking scheme The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. The end
9. DỀ SỐ 2 PLACEMENT TEST A. LISTENING Part 1: There are seven questions in this part. For each question there are three pictures and a short recording. Choose the correct picture and put a tick (√) in the box below it
10. Part 2: (12 points)You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer about her life in Berlin, the capital of Germany. For each question, put a tick ( √) in the correct box. 8. How long has Britta lived in Berlin? A. four years B. six years C. twenty years 9. What does Britta say about living in Berlin? A She can’t sleep at night because of the traffic noise. B She misses the museums and theatres in Bonn. C She likes living in a big, busy city. 10. The area of Berlin where Britta lives is A a rather expensive place to live. B a good place to eat out. C a long way from the city centre. 11. How does Britta usually travel around in Berlin?A She walks B She uses her bicycle. C She uses her tram or bus. 12. Britta says that her nephew, Philippe, A to the park with her. likes going B to the shops with his parents. C to a gallery with her. 13. Britta has lots of friends who A live near her.
11. B work with her. C are still in England. Part 3: (12 points) You will hear a man called Stephen Millas talking to a group of people about a trip to India to see tigers. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. THE TIGER TOUR Stephen’s profession: (14) ___ Date of departure: (15) ___ Number of tourists in group: (16)___ Type of accommodation: (17) ___ Means of transport in the park: - Open truck in the north, (18)___in the south. Meal NOT include: (19)___ Part 4: (12 points) You will hear a conversation between a boy, Carl, and a girl, Susanna, about a school concert. Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, put a tick (√) in the box under A for YES. If it is not correct, put a tick (√) in the box under B for NO. A B YES NO 20. Susanna feels shy about playing violin in public 21. Carl and Susanna share the same opinion about practising their instruments regularly. 22. Susanna’s parents refuse to allow her to give up violin lessons. 23. Carl aim is to have a career in music. 24. Susanna thinks she would enjoy working in another country. 25. Carl persuades Susanna to take part in the concert. B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY Part 1: (10 points) Choose the word which best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. 1. Jill: “Do I have to take that French course?” “No, you ___.” said Sue. A. haven’t B. don’t have C. needn’t D. mustn’t 2. There is a daily flight takes ___ at 8 AM A. in B. on C. up D. off 3. The temperatures ___ take place vary widely for different materials. A. at which they melt and freeze B. which melting and freezing C. which they melt and freeze D. at which melting and freezing 4. What ___ something nobody knows. A. are his plans is B. his plans are is C. are his plans that is D. his plans are it is 5. Look at the situation I am in! If only I ___ your advice. A. had followed B. follow C. followed D. would follow 6. I ___the windows cleaned about twice a week. A. get B. put C. am D. do 7. Only when he started working with her, ___that she was intelligent. A. he had realized B. did he realize C. he did realized D. he realized
12. 8. My favourite magazine, Teen Scene, ___ out every Wednesday. A. goes B. comes C. prints D. gets 9. Let’s go for a swim as soon as we ___the hotel. A. arrive B. get C. reach D. meet 10. He tried to deny ___ while stealing money, but no one believed him. A. to be capturing B. being capturing C. to be captured D. being captured C. READING COMPREHENSION Part 1: (15 points) Read the following passage and decide which answer (from A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the space provided. Stressful situations that emerge almost every day in life (1)___ to be unavoidable. However, we can do little sometimes to ward off a misfortune or unpleasant occurrence which may befall us (2)___ as only it can. At such a moment, one may hit the roof give into the (3)___ of the situation or, ideally, put a brave face on it trying to bear the burden. Can you (4) ___ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do you light one cigarette after (5) ___? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other neurotics? Or do you take a different stance and (6)___ good use of the time drawing up a schedule for the days to come? To withstand the stressful moment you can also (7) ___ a crossword puzzle, listen to your favorite music or even (8)___ a menu for your Sunday dinner. In fact, whatever way you (9)___to the annoying situation, you can exert no impact (10)___ it as the traffic jam will only reduce in due course. Nevertheless, your reaction might (11)___ influence your disposition for the (12)___ of the day. The inability to confront a stressful occurrence like that with a deal of composure and sensibility adds (13)___ more strain to your life and in this way puts your well-being in jeopardy. (14)___, it’s the seemingly negligible hardships we stumble on daily that run double the risk of developing serious health disorders rather than our isolated tragedies however painful they may be. Given that so many of those wretched stress (15)___ troubles affect us in a day, we should, at best, try to avoid them or possibly make radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles. 1. A. have B. need C. want D. seem 2. A. expectedly B. expected C. unexpectedly D. unexpected 3. A. carelessness B. helplessness C. happiness D. kindness 4. A. envision B. observe C. picture D. conclude 5. A. another B. other C. one another D. one other 6. A. take B. make C. get D. have 7. A. study B. play C. take D. do 8. A. compose B. draw C. read D. pay 9. A. confront B. deal C. respond D. challenge 10. A. in B. at C. on D. with 11. A. considerably B. considered C. considering D. considerable 12. A. work B. rest C. whole D. time 13. A. any B. many C. no D. much 14. A. Surprisedly B. Surprisingly C. Surprised D. Surprising 15. A. included B. includes C. including D. includes Part 2: (15 points) Fill ONE suitable word into each of the numbered blanks in the following passage. Write your answers in the space provided. ARE ZOOS A GOOD THING? Zoos are hugely popular attractions (16)___ adults and children alike. But are they actually a good thing? Critics of zoos would argue that animals often suffer (17)___ and mentally by being enclosed. Even the best artificial environments can't come close to matching the space, diversity, and
13. freedom that animals have in (18)___ natural habitats. This deprivation causes many zoo animals to become stressed or mentally ill. Capturing animals in the wild also causes much suffering by splitting up families. Some zoos make animals behave unnaturally: for example, marine parks often force dolphins and whales to perform tricks. These mammals may die decades earlier (19)___ their wild relatives, and some even try to commit suicide. On the other hand, by bringing people and animals (20)___ , zoos have the potential to educate the public about conservation issues and inspire people to protect animals and their habitats. Some zoos provide a safe environment for (21)___ which have been mistreated in circuses, or pets which have been abandoned. Zoos also carry out important research into subjects like animal behaviour and how to (22)___ illnesses. One of the most important modern functions of zoos (23)___ supporting international breeding programmes, particularly for endangered species. In the wild, some of the rarest species have difficulty (24)___ finding mates and breeding, and they might also be threatened (25)___ poachers, loss of their habitat and predators. A good zoo will enable these species to live and breed in a secure environment. In addition, as numbers of some wild species drop, there is an increased danger of populations becoming too genetically similar. Breeding programmes provide a safeguard: zoo-bred animals can be released into the wild to increase genetic diversity. (26)___ , opponents of zoos say that the vast majority of captive breeding programmes do not release animals back into the wild. Surplus animals are sold not only to other zoos but (27)___ to circuses or hunting ranches in the US or South Africa, (28)___ some people are willing to pay a lot of money for the chance to kill an animal in a fenced enclosure. Often, these animals are familiar with humans and have very little chance of escaping. So, are zoos good for animals or not? Perhaps it all (29)___ on how well individual zoos are managed, and the benefits of zoos can surely outweigh their harmful effects. However, it is understandable (30)___ many people believe imprisoning animals for any reason is simply wrong. Part 3: (20 points) Read the passage and choose the correct answer (from A, B, C or D) for each question. Write your answers in the space provided. The biologist’s role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the discovery and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific value systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as concerned the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which he is involved. This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists requires a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory balance. As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about such ethical problems as man’s control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further evolutionary development. As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality. As desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value judgments. Who would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for change? In case of genetic deficiencies and diseases, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they may far outweigh the benefits. Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man’s constant efforts to improve the quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectre of pollution is the problem of surplus human population. A rise in population necessitates an increase in the operations of modern industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water, and soil. The question of how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of critical importance. Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in order to determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet.
14. For although many of man’s present and future problems may seem to be essentially social, political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very existence of life itself. 31. According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about ___. A. his basic research B. the development of new ideas C. his manipulation of genes D. the consequences of his discoveries 32. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___. A. an accomplishment B. a reality C. genetic engineering D. hereditary mechanism 33. It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering ___. A. may do us more harm than good B. is no longer desirable C. is the most desirable for life D. will change all human traits 34. The pronoun “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ___. A. cases of genetic deficiencies B. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanism C. possibilities for genetic deficiencies D. effects of genetic engineering misuse 35. What is probably the most important biological problem mentioned in the passage? A. social and economic deficiencies B. manipulation of genes C. genetic engineering misuse D. environmental pollution 36. The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ___. A. serious environmental pollution B. activities of an overpopulated society’s industry C. activities of surplus human population D. the waste products dumped into our environment 37. The word “underlying” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ___. A. noticing B. causing C. finding D. depriving 38. According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work ___. A. harder and harder B. accurately and objectively C. on social and political purposes D. with other social scientists 39. Which of the following is closest meaning to the word “ramifications” in paragraph 4? A. useful experiments B. effective techniques C. harmful consequences D. latest developments 40. What is the author’s purpose in this passage? A. To conduct a survey of the biologist’s role in society. B. To urge biologists to solve the problems of surplus human population. C. To emphasize the biologist’s role in solving the world’s problems. D. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering. D. WRITING Part 1: Rewrite the following sentences: 1. House prices has decreased sharply recently. There . 2. People think that the robber escaped in a stolen car. The robber 3. I am sure that Peter didn’t come to the meeting. Peter can’t 4. Although he tried very hard, he didn’t win the race. However hard 5. This man comes from a large city. They don’t like his lifestyle. This man whose Part 2:
15. 1. They haven’t got any bread at the supermarket.  They ___bread at the supermarket. RUN 2. My parents can only go to the cinema at the weekend.  On week days, my parents___ to the cinema AREN’T 3. Unfortunately, I don’t do it very well.  Unfortunately, I am ___ doing it. NOT 4. It’s six months since I last went swimming.  I ___swimming for six months. BEEN 5. Father doesn’t want you to keep these disgusting insects . RID Father wants these disgusting insects. ĐÁP ÁN Listening 1.B 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.A 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.B 11.B 12.C 13.A 14. ARTIST/PAINTER 15. 6th (of) November 16. 18/ EIGHTEEN 17. HOTEL(S) 18. ELEPHANT(S) 19. LUNCH 20.B 21.B 22.A 23.B 24.A 25.B Grammar & Vocabulary 1.C 2.D 3.D 4.B 5.A 6.A 7.B 8.B 9.C 10.D Mistakes Lin Corrections Mistakes Line Corrections e 11. WHAT b HOW 16. WHOSE k WHO 12. SLOW c SLOWLY 17. HOLD m HELD 13. COMPLAIN e COMPLAINED 18. IMPRESSIVE n IMPRESSION 14. MUCH g MANY 19. p TECHNOLOGICAL TECHNOLOGY 15. THIS j THESE 20. LESS r AS Reading Comprehension 1.D 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.C 11.A 12.B 13.D 14.B 15.C 16. FOR 17. 18.THEIR 19.THAN 20. TOGETHER PHYSICALLY 21. ANIMALS 22. TREAT 23. IS 24.IN 25. BY 26. HOWEVER 27.ALSO 28.WHERE 29.DEPENDS 30.THAT 31. D 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. D 36. B 37. B 38. D 39. C 40.C 41.F 42. G 43. A 44.B 45.I 46. C 47. 1983 48. SEEN BY 49. PREPARED A 50. JAMIE’S WIFE LUNCH 51. F 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. E Writing 1. RUN OUT OF 2. AREN’T ABLE TO GO 3. NOT GOOD AT 4. HAVE NOT/ HAVEN’T BEEN 5.YOU TO GET RID OF
16. Part 2: - viết đỳng thể loại, bố cục hợp lớ, rừ ràng phự hợp với yờu cầu của đề bài: 2 - Sử dụng ngụn từ đỳng văn phong / thể loại, đa dạng về từ vựng và cấu trỳc: 2 - Nội dung đầy đủ, làm rừ được yờu cầu cầu đề bài : 10 - Số từ khụng nhiều hơn hoặc ớt hơn so với quy định 10 %: 2 - Sử dụng đỳng dấu cõu, viết đỳng chớnh tả: 2 - Sử dụng đỳng thời, thể, cấu trỳc cõu đỳng ngữ phỏp: 2 Part 3: - Bố cục hợp lớ, rừ ràng phự hợp với yờu cầu của đề bài và đầy đủ cỏc phần: 3 - Phỏt triển ý cú trỡnh tự logic và mạch lạc: 3 - Sử dụng ngụn từ đỳng văn phong/ thể loại, đa dạng về từ vựng và cấu trỳc: 3 - Sử dụng từ nối cỏc ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển : 2 - Nội dung: Đủ thuyết phục người đọc: 5 Đủ dẫn chứng, vớ dụ, lập luận: 5 Số từ khụng nhiều hơn hoặc ớt hơn so với quy định 10 % : 3 - Sử dụng đỳng dấu cõu, viết đỳng chớnh tả: 3 Sử dụng đỳng thời, thể, cấu trỳc cõu đỳng ngữ phỏp.: 3
17. ĐỀ SỐ 3 PART I: LEXICO –GRAMMAR (10 Points) I. (16 questions = 3.2 points) Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete each sentence. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided. 1. Of Charles Dicken’s many novels, Great Expectation is perhaps to many readers. A. the most satisfying one B. most satisfying one C. more than satisfying one D. the more satisfying one than 2. Not only ., it also performs an essential function in the reproduction of the plant. A. the flower looks beautiful B. the flower is looking beautiful C. does the flower look beautiful D. the beautiful flower 3. We missed the ferry. It by the time we arrived at the pier. A. went B. was going C. had gone D. has gone 4. She . him of wanting to marry her for her money. A. cursed B. accused C. blamed D. warned 5. . the wet weather, the football match went ahead A. Although B. Owing to C. However D. In spite of 6. They have sent Bob to prison for hitting . policeman on head. I’ll go to prison tomorrow to bring him some clothes. A. ỉ/a/his/ ỉ B. a/a/the/the C. the/the/ ỉ/the D. ỉ/a/the/the 7. With the help of German experts, the factory produced . cars in 1993 as the year before. A. as twice many B. as many as twice C. as twice as many D. twice as many 8. But for his help, I A. could not have succeeded B. had not succeeded C. did not succeed D. have not succeeded 9. The bank is reported in the local newspaper .in broad daylight. A. to be robbed B. robbed C. to have been robbed D. having been robbed 10. You might not get better, but this medicine will do you no A. worse B. danger C. harm D. illness 11. Do you hear the guitar music? John his new guitar. A. must be playing B. could play C. should play D. will be playing 12. Linda: “Thanks for the book. I’ve been looking for it for months.” Daniel: “ .” A. You can say that again B. Thank you for looking for it C. I like reading books D. I’m glad you like it
18. 13. Peter: “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer vocation?” Mary: “ .” A. Do you think I would B. I wouldn’t. Thank you C. Yes, you’re a good friendD. Yes, I’d love to. Thanks 14. Several cars . owners had parked them under the trees, were damaged. A. their B. which C. whom D. whose 15. As it had not rained for several months, there was a . of water. A. shortage B. waste C. drop D. loss 16. If you have a .to make about the food, I am willing to listen. A. dislike B. complaint C. trouble D. discontent II. (4 questions = 0.8 point) Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to indicate the word/ phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided. 17. Success has always meant providing their families with a decent standard of living. A. high B. good C. acceptable D. low 18. Volunteering also means getting to meet people with a similar passion. A. alike B. identical C. common D. distinct 19. She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test. A. nervous B. comfortable C. depressed D. relaxing 20. Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can't control they spend online. A. dependent on B. hooked on C. indifferent to D. exhausted by III.(10 questions = 2 points) Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. In the centre of the room, clamped to an upright easel, stood the full- length portrait of a young man of (21. ORDINARY) personal beauty, and in front of it, some little (22. DISTANT) away, was sitting the artist himself, Basil Hallward, whose sudden (23. APPEAR) some years ago caused, at the time, such public (24. EXCITE), and gave rise to so many strange conjectures. As the painter looked at the (25. GRACE) and comely form he had so (26. SKILL) mirrored in his art, a smile of (27. PLEASE) passed across his face, and seemed about to linger there. But he (28. SUDDEN) started up, and, closing his eyes, placed, his fingers upon the lids, as though he sought to (29. PRISON) within his brain some curious dream from which he feared he might (30. WAKE) 21. extraordinary 22. distance 23. disappearance 24. excitement 25. gracious 26. skillfully
19. 27. pleasure 28. suddenly. 29. imprison 30. awake IV. (10 questions = 2 points) Fill a suitable preposition/ particle in each gap to complete the sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. 31. I don’t think Nikki would’ve hurt your feelings purpose. on 32. At the library yesterday, I ran an old friend. across 33. Although Mark said that he’d be there at 8. 00, he didn’t turn until 10. 30. up 34. She takes her father; she has the same gestures and mannerisms. after 35. We’ve had nothing but trouble .this car. with 36. I don’t know if she’ll get her husband’s death. Over 37. We had some problems when we checked the hotel. in 38. The old gentleman turned to be an old friend of his grandfather’s. out 39. There are several theories about why dinosaurs died .so suddenly. out 40. According to a recent survey, most people are .good terms with their neighbors. on (7 questions = 1.4 points) Give the correct form of the phrasal verbs from the box to complete the following sentences. Use each phrasal verb once. There are three extra phrasal verbs that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. get over note down turn down call on make out keep off get off take up put away fall down 41. He’ll be very upset if you turn down his offer of help. 42. The explorers made a fire to keep off wild animals. 43. Boy! Put away all your toys and go to bed right now. 44. Johnny sometimes calls on his grandparents in the countryside. 45. I couldn't make out . what he had talked about because I was not used to his accent. 46. The lady the bus, walked toward the shop and entered it. Got off 47. The students were trying to the explanation given by the famous lecturer. note down V. (3 questions = 0.6 points) Find ONE word which can be used appropriately in all three sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. 48. You need to ___ all applications before shutting down your computer. Should the factory ___ down, 100 people will lose their jobs. Mike's had three car accidents, plus a few other pretty ___ shaves. Close 49. A good diet and fitness ___ a large part in helping people live longer. So far, the company has refused to ___ ball, preferring to remain independent. Rain stopped ___ after only an hour. Play
20. 50. I invited them to ___ us for dinner. A lot of people want to ___ the club, so there's a long waiting list. Her parents are going to London next week and she will ___ them later. Join PART II: READING (5 points) (10 questions = 2 points) Read the text below and fill each gap with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. To make our existing energy (1) last longer, scientists and engineers are working to develop more efficient methods of recovering, transporting, and using energy. Petroleum and mining experts are investigating more economical ways of removing oil, (2) gas, and coal from the earth. In addition, engineers are designing more efficient transportation systems to (3) the loss of energy as fuel is transported. Engineers also can (4) our fuel reserves last longer by designing more efficient power plants and engines. Power-plant designers are developing plants that can turn more of the energy in fuel (5) electric energy to save fuel. Conserving (6) . and using it wisely will also make the energy supply last longer. (7) simple acts as turning off unneeded lights help conserve energy. Improved building construction, better insulation, and use of (8) cells could save up to half the energy used for heating and cooling. Travelling by bus, train reduces energy consumption. The (9) of paper and of aluminum, glass, and plastic containers greatly reduces the (10) of energy used in manufacturing new produces. 51. resources 52. natural 53. reduce 54. make 55. into 56. energy 57. Such 58. solar 59. recycling 60. amount (5 questions = 1 point) Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided. AN ORANGE A DAY KEEPS THE DOCTOR AWAY Most people today know how important it is to have a careful diet. If for some reason this is not possible we have available to us a wide (2) of dietary supplements including vitamins and minerals. One of the earliest researchers to recognize the role dietary deficiencies play in disease was the Scottish surgeon, James Lind. Lind analysed the diets of thousands of British sailors who had taken long sea voyages and discovered that they ate (4). or no fresh fruit such as lemons or oranges. He came to the conclusion that a lack of these fruits led to the disease (6) as “scurvy”. Scurvy had occurred throughout human history during times of warfare and famine when people could not get fresh foods like fruit, vegetables and meat. However, when Europeans began to make long voyages of exploration in the fifteen and sixteen centuries the problem (8) more acute. By
21. the eighteenth century, more sailors were dying of scurvy on British ships than as a result of warfare. Lind proved his theory by (9) .the crew of one ship with a supply of fresh lemon juice and comparing the health of the sailors at the end of a long voyage with a second crew that had had only conventional meals. Many of this second group of sailors developed scurvy while the crew who had had saccess to the lemon juice were healthy. 61. a. range b. collection c. set d. series 62. a. little b. few c. scarce d. less 63. a. called b. named c. known d. well-known 64. a. turned b. turned out c. came d. became 65. a. providing b. giving c. delivering d. bringing Read the passage and do the tasks that follow (2 points) I remember the feeling of the first time I left home that I would never be able to feel at home anywhere but in my home. No other place would have my mum, my dad, my annoying little brother and my cat, Tilly. Nowhere would smell like my home-my mum’s roast chicken in the oven and the salty, seaweeds smell that drifted in from nearby beach. The sound of the seagulls squawking was the sound of home. Nowhere else would I feel comfortable enough to put my feet up under me and gaze into the log fire dreaming of the future. I was 15 when I first went away from home on a school trip to Germany. My friend was going too, but we would all stay with different families. I was nervous about this. I knew the home I was going to would not be as comfortable as mine, the family would not be as kind, and who knew what the German food would be like? I knew I would spend three weeks, homesick and sad, missing my family back home. We arrived in Germany late at night after a long journey by coach and boat. I was tired and hungry. I went into school hall, where my host families were waiting to meet us. I wondered which one would be mine. Would they give me dinner at this time and would I be able to eat the unfamiliar food? Suddenly I heard my name called and the name of my exchange partner, Brigitte Schmitt. A pretty blond girl stepped forward, smiling widely. Behind her stood her parents, a pleasant-looking couple who were also smiling. They held out their hands and said: “ Wilkommen in Deutschland. Welcome to Germany.” I spent three happy weeks with the Schmitt family. Brigitte had an elder brother, Hendrik, and a younger sister, Lisa. They had two cats: Ping and Pong, who sat on my lap as I looked into the fire in the evenings. The whole family were kind and welcoming. My room was cosy and warn and looked out onto a forest. The fresh clean smell of the trees and of apples baking in the oven became familiar and comforting, like the smells of home. I learned in those three weeks that you can feel at home anywhere that people kind to you. Later that year, Brigitte came to stay with me in the UK. I gave her my room and move in with my brother. I cleared space for her clothes and put fresh flowers in a vase by the bed. I asked my mum to make her famous roast chicken and an apple pie to make our guest feel at home. We made a welcome banner and put it up on the front door. I did everything I could to help Brigitte feel at home with us. I now understood the importance of a warm welcome.
22. + (7 questions = 1.4 points) Complete the sentences below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage to complete each blank space. 66. The writer’s mother often cooks ___ 67. She thought the visit to Germany would make her feel___ 68. Brigitte came to pick up the girl with___ 69. The Schmitt family’s pets’ names are___ 70. From her bedroom she could see a ___ 71. The girl and her family tried hard to make Brigitte ___ 72. The girl realized that it was essential to have ___ + (3 questions = 0.6 point) Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage? Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided: YES if the statement agrees with the information in the passage. NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage. NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in the passage. 73. The girl was worried about not living with her friend. Y 74. The German food was so awful that the girl couldn’t eat it. NG 75. The host family were kind but the girl didn’t get on well with them. N PART III: WRITING (5 points) (10 questions = 2 points) Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the original sentence. 76. She never seems to succeed, even though she works hard However hard she works, she never seems to succeed 77. The people who were at the meeting will say nothing to the press Nobody who was at the meeting will say anything to the press 78. Never before have I seen Anita with her hair in such a mess This is the first time I have ever seen Anita with her hair in such a mess 79. My boss works better when he’s pressed for time The less time my boss has,, the better he works 80. He managed to complete the sculpture although his eyesight was failing. Despite his failing eyesight, he managed to complete the sculpture 81. I can’t come to her wedding next Saturday night. In no way can I come to her wedding next Saturday. 82. Kate swam a length of the pool. No other girls as young as her did that. → Kate was the youngest girl to swim a length of the pool. 83. It was a bad idea to put this shirt in the washing machine. This shirt shouldn’t/ought not to have been put in the washing machine 84. His mood began to improve as soon as he drank a glass of wine. Scarcely had he drunk a glass of wine than his mood began to improve 85.He brought the umbrella along but it didn’t rain. He needn't have brought the umbrella
23. (10 questions = Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using between three and six words including the word given. Do not change the words given in brackets in any way.( 2 points) 86. Surely nobody likes it when people make fun of them in public. (BEING) Surely nobody likes BEING made fun of in public 87. The soap opera was so exciting that I forgot to do my exercise. (SUCH) It was such an exciting soap opera that I forgot to do my exercise. 88. All the witnesses said the accident was my fault. (BLAMED) All the witnesses blamed me for the accident 89. The Members of Parliament did everything he could to exploit the situation. (ADVANTAGE) The Members of Parliament did everything he could to take advantage of the situation. 90. Everyone was surprised that the singer had very little money when he died. (WHICH) The singer had very little money when he died, which surprised everyone 91. It was almost dark when we got home. (until) → Not until it was almost dark did we get home 92. Make sure that you wear clothes that don’t restrict your movements. (allow) Make sure that you wear clothes that allow you to move freely. 93. He had no idea at all that the police were watching him. (UNAWARE) He was quite unaware (of the fact) that the police were watching him/of the police watching him. 94. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting. (THAN) Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye. 95. It would be difficult for me to finish the work by the weekend. (difficulty) I would have difficulty (in) finishing the work by the weekend. (5 questions = 1 points) Find one mistake in each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D for your choice and write your correction in the corresponding numbered spaces provided. 96. There are (A) many ways to (B) preserve fruit (C), for example freezing, canning and to dry (D). 97. If (A) the project is finished on (B) time, the federal government won't award (C) the company further (D) contracts. 98. The company suffered substantial (A) losses after the (B) stock market crash (C) and found it difficult for recovering (D). 99. Some birds (A) can travel at speeds approaching one hundred miles an hour (B), and a few land animals (C) can so (D). 100.Either (A) Mr. Anderson or (B) Ms Wiggins are (C) going to teach our class today (D).
24. ĐỀ SỐ 4 1. Đề thi đề xuất 2. Kỡ thi: Học sinh giỏi lớp 10 Mụn thi: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 180 phỳt 3. Họ và tờn: Nguyễn Thị Nhuần Chức vụ: Giỏo viờn 4. Đơn vị: THPT C Kim Bảng 5. Nội dung đề thi SECTION A – PHONETICS I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure 2. A. increase B. widespread C. death D. residential 3. A. cough B. weigh C. laugh D. photograph 4. A. realize B. teacher C. reason D. feature 5. A. treated B. asked C. naked D. suggested 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. II. Find the word whose syllable is stresses differently from that of the others. 6. A. national B. tropical C. tradition D. cinema 7. A. repair B. teacher C. happen D. husband 8. A. ocean B. champion C. animal D. destroy 9. A. forest B. because C. effort D. colorful 10. A. comfortable B. difficult C. history D. computer 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. 11. Siberian tigers are considered species
25. A. endangered B. danger C. dangerous D. endanger 12.Computers were a wonderful A. inventive B. discover C. invention D. discovery 13.You can find .of this marine plant in this book. A. feature B. facts C. details D. events 14.When I was young, my parents never let me .out alone at night. A. to go B. going C. went D. go 15. .were taken to the nearest hospital by ambulance. A.injures B. The injured C. injured D. The injury person 16.The villagers had to work hard in the fields all day and could hardly ends meet. A. work B. do C. make D. let 17.A computer is of doing almost anything you ask it to. A. able B. disable C. capable D. incapable 18.He was offered the job his qualifications were poor. A. although B. in spite of C. because of D. because 19.New sources of energy are being looked for as fossil fuels continuing to dwindle. A. Quickly B. constantly C. instantly D. hurrily 20.I can answer the questions easily, makes me get high marks. A. which B. whom C. that D. whose 21.I need to make my mind. A. Of B. from C. out of D. up 22.Without plants water would run .as soon as it falls. A. of B. off C. out D. down 23. .film shows some actual aspects of human or social activities. A. Documentary B. Serial C. Drama D. Comedy 24.Harry is a sailor. He spends most of his life at .sea. A. a B. the C. an D. No article 25.1. Lomonosov was not a great scientist but also a very talented poet. A. fairly B. merely C. scarcely D. hardly
26. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. II. There is ONE mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct them. 26. His time tomorrow I will lie on the beach , enjoying the sunshine . A B C D 27. Goats are extremely destruction to natural vegetation and are often responsible for soil erosion A B C D 28. They didn’t seem to take any notice of that the teacher said. A B C D 29. Tom’s very good at science when his brother is absolutely hopeless . A B C D 30. They visited these beautiful views while they lived in England . A B C D Mistake Correction Mistake Correction 26 29 27 30 28 III. Supply the correct forms of the words in brackets. 31.He suffered from constant . SLEEP 32.The boy was very violent and his parents found him . MANAGE 33.People in the village no longer use water in that well because of its . PURE 34.“Would you like some ?” - Lan asked. You must be tired after that long walk. REFRESH 35.We have to take care of our own for nobody else will do this for us. POSSESS. 31. 34. 32. 35. 33. SECTION C – READING I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.
27. Education is not an end, but a mean to an end. In other words, we do not educate children for the purpose of educating them. Our purpose is to fit them for life. In some modern countries it has for some time been fashionable to think that by free education for all – whether rich or poor, clear or stupid – one can solve all the problems of society and build a perfect nation. But we can already see that free education for all is not enough; we find in such country a larger number of people work with hands is thought to be dirty and shameful in such countries. But we have to think a moment to understand that the work of a completely uneducated farmer is far more important than that of a professor; we can live without education, but we die if we have no food. If no one cleaned our streets and took the rubbish away from our house, we should get terrible diseases in our town In fact we can say that all of us must be educated to fit us for life, it means that we must be educated in such a way that, firstly, each of us can do whatever work suited to our brains and ability and, secondly, that we can realize that all jobs are necessary to society, and that is very bad to be ashamed of one’s work. Only such a type of education can be valuable to society. Choose the best answer according to the passage. 36. The writer of the passage think that A. education can settle most of the world problems B. free education for all probably leads to a perfect world C. free education won’t help to solve social problems D. all the social problems can’t be solved by education 37.The writer wants to prove that A. our society needs all kinds of jobs B. our society needs free education for all C. a farmer is more important than a professor D. people with high education refuse to do what they think “low” work. 38.According to the passage a. work with hands is dirty and shameful b. work with hand is low work c. work with hand is the most important d. we can’t regard work with hand as low work 39.The purpose of education is a. to choose a system of education b. to prepare children mainly for future work c. to let everyone receive education fit for him d. To build a perfect world 40.The passage tell us about of education
28. a. the means b. the system c. the value d. the type 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. HOW THE POP SONG OF TOMORROW ARE CHOSEN Teenagers in America buy millions of records every year so it is (41) ___ surprising that manufacturers find it (42) ___ to try out the recordings they have made in front of live audiences before (43) ___ the records on the market. The (44) ___ way of doing this is the one employed in Hollywood, where hundreds of (45) ___ are invited to listen to test records and given dials that measure their response to them electrically. Everyone who goes to the sessions enjoys them, (46) ___ they are not paid for their help. They think they are being given an opportunity to (47) ___ the manufacturers what they like. They say that there (48) ___ be more sessions like this. It there (49) ___ , the song that are published would be better and they (50) ___ hear so much rubbish on the radio. 41. A. almost B. hardly C. even D. nearly 42. A. being useful B. to be useful C. useful D. that it is useful 43. A. put B. they are putting C. to put D. putting 44. A. most effective B. more effective C. effectiveness D. effected 45. A. youngs B. young people C. the youth D. the youths 46. A. although B. in spite of C. however D. nevertheless 47. A. explain B. inform C. tell D. say 48. A. would B. should C. shall D. ought 49. A. are B. were C. was D. had 50. A. shouldn’t B. mustn’t C. ought not to D. wouldn’t have to 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. III. Fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
29. When I was sixteen I (51) school and went to work in a butcher’s shop. The manager was a young man, only a few year older than me, and he was very ambitious. Also, he was a bit dishonest. When customers asked (52) the best steak he would sell them poor-quality beef. He used to do this to young housewives, who if the meat was tough, blamed themselves for not cooking it properly. Sometimes, he did not give the (53) change and the customers did not notice. - One day, just before Christmas, we decided to close early because we .(54) sold all our meat, except for one small turkey. As I was (55) to lock the door, a woman rushed in and said that she really had to have a ten-pound turkey. The manager tried to sell her small one we had left. ‘It’s too small’, she said. The manager said he .(56) get another one and went to back of the shop with the turkey. I knew we did not have .(57) more, so I followed him to see (58) he was going to do. He pulled and stretched the turkey to (59) it look bigger and when back and said, ‘Here you are, madam. Here is a bigger one’. - ‘Yes’, she said, ‘but not (60) bigger. I’ll take both of them’. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. SECTION D – WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. 61. Andrew went to the supermarket despite the heavy rain → Although 62. His eel soup is better than any other soups I have ever eaten. → Of all 63. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport. → He regretted 64. That is the best meal I have ever eaten. → I have never 65. If it hadn’t been for this treatment, the patient would have died → Without
30. II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of these words. 66. He forgot about the gun until he got home. (did) → Not until 67. Organized activities don’t interest Eva very much. ( interested) → Eva 68. If you run everyday, your breathing improves quickly. (running ) → Daily 69. Do you like meat more than fish? (prefer) → Do 70. The boy is talking to the girl with long hair. (whom) → The III. Write a composition about 150 – 200 words on the following topic: The Internet is now getting more and more popular all over the world. So, how important is it to your life? Write a paragraph of about 120 words to answer this question.
31. THE END ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM CHẤM ĐỀ (Hướngdẫnchấmgồm02trang) SECTION A – PHONETICS I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B II. Find the word with the stress on the second syllable. 5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. D SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. 15 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 15 pts 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. A
32. 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. B II. Read the following passage. There is ONE mistake in each of the numbered lines. Find and correct them. Mistake Correcti Mistak Correcti s on es on 2 A . lie Be lying 2 B . 6 9 when whereas 2 A. destructi destructi 3 D . Were 7 on ve 0 lived living 2 C .that what 8 III. Supply the correct forms of the words in brackets. 5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts 31. sleeplessness 34. refreshments 32. unmanageable 35. possessions 33. impurity SECTION C – READING I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. 5 x 2 pts/ correct answer = 10 pts 36. D 37. A 38B 39. B 40. C II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. 10 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 10 pts 41. B 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. B 50. D III. Fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word. 10 questions x 1 pt/ question = 10 pts 51. left/ finished 52. for 53.exact/ right/ 54.had 55. about correct 56. would 57. any 58. what 59. make 60. much SECTION D – WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. 5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts 61. Although it rained heavily / the rain was heavy, Andrew went to the supermarket. 62. Of all the soups I have ever eaten, his eel soup is the best. 63. He regretted not having said goobbye to her at the airport. 64. I have never eaten such a good meal before/ a better meal than that. 65. Without this treatment, the patient would have died.
33. II.Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of these words. 5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts 66. Not only he got home did he remember about the gun. 67. Eva is not very interested in organised activities. 68. Daily running improves your breathing quickly. 69. Do you prefer meat to fish? 70. The girl whom the boy is talking to has long hair. III. Write a composition about 150 – 200 words on the following topic: (25 pts) Notes: The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate. 2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. TOTAL: 100 / 5 = 20 Thank you for your cooperation and considerations. THE END
34. ĐỀ SỐ 5 ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Kè THI HSG TỈNH 10 MễN: TIẾNG ANH I. LISTENING PART 1: Questions 1 – 11 Questions 1 – 5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. STUDENT EMPLOYMENT BUREAU STUDENT REGISTRATION FORM Faculty: Science EXAMPLE Given name: Charlotte Surname: (1) . Address: (2) .Hearthfield St, Maryland Telephone numbers: Home: N/A Mobile: (3) . Number of hours preferred: (4) . Employment experience: (5) . Questions 6 – 8 Circle the correct letter A – C 6. What time should Annetta finish work in the hamburger shop? A. 7.00 pm B. 3.00 am C. 11.00 pm 7. What is the problem with Annetta’s pay at the hamburger shop? A. the pay is too much B. the pay is late C. the pay isn’t correct 8. How many children will Annetta have to look after? A. two boys and a girl B. two boys and two girls C. two girls and a boy Questions 9 – 11
35. Label the map, choosing your answers from the list below. Write the correct letters A – E on the map. PART 2: Questions 12 – 20 For each question, there are three pictures and one short recording. Choose the correct picture and put a tick (√) in the box below it. Example: How did the woman get to work? 12. What regular exercise does David do at the moment?
36. 13. What should Suzie take to Emma’s house? 14. Which kind of T-shirt did the boy choose? 15. What frightened the man? 16. Where is the woman calling from?
37. 17. How did the woman spend her last holiday? 18. Where is the girl’s purse? 19. What is the man’s job now? 20. Which calendar will the boy buy?
38. II. PRONUNCATION Circle the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. 1. A. dolphin B. honest C. lost D. occasion 2. A. works B. stays C. discovers D. bans 3. A. photograph B. phobia C. Stephen D. Philippines 4. A. missing B. scissors C. messenger D. massage 5. A. established B. recognized C. orphaned D. endangered III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR Exercise 1: Choose the most suitable option to fill in the blank. 1. When was Cuc Phuong forest ___Cuc Phuong National Park? A. built B. named C. born D. developed 2. Unfortunately, about 5000 species of plants and animals are already being ___ each year. A. eliminated B. developed C. visited D. found 3. Without plants, water would run off and take away___ soil. A. poisonous B. bad C. forest D. valuable 4. ___ of our poor condition, we tried to cure the injured dolphin. A. Despite B. Because C. In spite D. Although 5. Look at that girl swimming ___ the sea. A. on B. under C. across D. in 6. -A: ___. -B: I'd be glad to. A. Would you like to drive me to class today? My car doesn’t start. B. Would you please drive me to class today? My car doesn’t start. C. Why don't you drive me to class today? My car doesn’t start. D. What about driving me to class today? My car doesn't start. 7. ___is a chemical used for killing weeds. A. Pesticide B. Herbicide C. Fertilizer D. Antibiotic
39. 8. We all enjoyed the waters of Timor Sea and the coral reefs that lie ___. A. under B. behind C. beneath D. beside 9. Sperm whales are ___, which means they eat meat. A. herbivores B. carnivores C. omnivores D. mammals 10. You are ___ to clean the bathroom. A. declared B. imagined C. supposed D. spoken 11. There’s a ___ look on his face. I’m ___ of him indeed. A. frightening/scared B. frightening/scaring C. frightened/ scaring D. frightened/scared 12. ___ Vietnamese are patriotic. Many were ___ heroes in the wars against foreign invaders. A. x/x B. The/the C. x/the D. The/x 13. “What would you like for your birthday?” – “___ will do.” A. Anything B. None C. Something D. Somebody 14. We have run out of water. – Really? Give me the bucket and I ___ some. A. will fetch B. am going to fetch C. can fetch D. am fetching 15. The band has gone on tour to ___ their new album. A. increase B. strengthen C. promote D. spread 16. I have a monthly bank ___ sent to me, so that I know how much there is in my account. A. balance B. overdraft C. statement D. cheque 17. The marshes provide a rich ___ for water plants. A. habitant B. inhabitant C. habitat D. habitation 18. It upset him that nobody had ___ to tell him about it. A. bothered B. even C. minded D. cared for 19. Many children are being taught in ___ classes. A. oversize B. oversized C. size over D. sized over 20. The temperature has ___ by five degrees. A. rose B. raised C. arose D. risen Exercise 2: Choose the words or phrases that are not correct in Standard English and CORRECT them. 1. Because the expense of (B)traditional fuels, many countries (C)have been investigating alternative (D)sources of power. 2. Sharks (A)can detect minute (B)electrical discharges (C)come from (D)their prey.
40. 3. The (A)oceans contain many (B)forms of life that (C)has not (D)yet been discovered. 4. (A)The song to (B)that we (C)listened last night (D)was beautiful. 5. (A)Not only my teacher (B)but also my close friend (C)are (D)here. Exercise 3: Read the passage below and put the words in capitals into the correct forms to complete the passage. The FIFA World Cup, often (1)___ the World Cup, is SIMPLE an international association football competition (2)___ CONTESTANT by the senior men's national teams of the members of Fộdộration Internationale de Football Association (FIFA), the sport's global (3)___ body. The championship has been GOVERNMENT awarded every four years since the inaugural tournament in 1930, except in 1942 and 1946 when it was not held because of the Second World War. The current champions are Spain, who won the 2010 tournament in South Africa. The current format of the tournament involves 32 teams (4)___ for the title at venues within the host nation(s) COMPETITION over a period of about a month; this phase is often called the World Cup Finals. A (5)___ phase, which currently DISQUALIFY takes place over the preceding three years, is used to determine which teams qualify for the tournament together with the host nation(s). The 19 World Cup tournaments have been won by eight different (6)___teams. Brazil have won five times, and NATION they are the only team to have played in every tournament. The other World Cup (7)___ are Italy, with four titles; West WIN Germany, with three titles; Argentina and inaugural winners Uruguay, with two titles each; and England, France, and Spain, with one title each. The World Cup is among the world's most (8)___ WIDTH viewed sporting events; an (9)___ 715.1 million people ESTIMATE watched the final match of the 2006 FIFA World Cup held in Germany. The next three World Cups will be (10)___ HOST by Brazil in 2014, Russia in 2018, and Qatar in 2022. Exercise 4: Choose the option that has the same meaning as the underlined word/phrase above. 1.Try to eliminate fatty foods from your diet.
41. A. limit B. prevent C. get rid of D. add 2.The cattle drank from a river polluted with toxic chemicals. A. waste B. colorless C. odorless D. poisonous 3.Whales feed on krill. A. tiny shellfish B. small animals C. sea plants D. small fish 4.Sperm whale populations are at risk due to hunting. A. in extinction B. in danger C. on the decrease D. in fewness 5.We had an accidental meeting with an old friend at the party last night. A. unpleasant B. unexpected C.unacceptable D. unlucky IV. READING COMPREHENSION Exercise 1: The people below all want to find a radio programme they could enjoy listening to this week. Decide which programme would be the most suitable for the following people by marking the correct letter (A-H) next to the number (1-5) on your answer sheet. Note that there are more radio programmes than needed. 1. Roberta and Alice are interested in pop music. They want to listen to a live performance, and would also enjoy hearing interviews with some of the performers. 2. Paul enjoys listening to good modern drama. He works long hours during the week so he can only listen to the radio at weekends. 3. Sven teaches history and likes listening to experts talking about his subject. However, he hates shows which invite listeners to phone in. 4. Al writes poetry, and enjoys hearing other writers read their poems on the radio. He wants to have the opportunity to give his own opinions live on the programme. 5. Kim and Yannis are interested in finding out about the latest international events. They want to listen to a programme that is on every day. RADIO PROGRAMME WE RECOMMEND THIS WEEK A. Before Our Time B. Pop Review On Saturday, this weekly programme This Saturday’s programme discusses the includes the first part of a documentary very latest CD releases, so there will be a series about the discovery of the site of a great mix of music from all over the 15th-century village. Professor John Frost world. This week’s special report comes and his team will talk about what life from Senegal. was like for the villagers.
42. C. Good Morning D. History Team This programme has regular reports on This Wednesday, a local team tries to current affairs and news stories as they prove that people lived in the rocky hills happen at home and abroad, plus of their area thousands of years ago. discussions every morning about the Specialist presenter Dr Clive Sparky background to world news. All this describes what they find. Listeners can week, the programme features interviews ring in and ask him questions, and with ordinary people around the world discuss their own interests and local who talk about the recent history of their discoveries. country. F. Opinion E. Spotlight Find out about the news on this regular This Thursday, writer Kate Dyer talks Wednesday morning programme, with a about the relationship between her team of journalists discussing the major poetry and her work as a history teacher. events of the week around the world. this Kate will perform her latest poem, week, the programme also visits the new ‘Sunshine’. Listeners can then phone in National Library’s collection of original and talk to Kate about her work. documents from the world of literature, Dramatist David Fry will also talk about including internationally famous drama and his latest book on historical drama from poetry, with readings of some of the poems. th the 19 century. H. Showtime G. Out and About This is a perfect programme for lovers of Hear all the latest in the world of pop new plays, music and poetry. On and rock, including a week of major Saturday, listeners have the chance to concerts as they happen every evening, hear the prize-winning play ‘Machines’. coming direct from Birmingham. After Poet Roger Brookes will also read from each concert, listeners can also hear his new collection ‘Rainbow’ and members of the band answering composer Jack Williams will play his questions about their music. latest piece for classical guitar. Exercise 2: Read the text and choose the best answer. Although both Luther Burbank and George Washington Carver drastically changed American agriculture and were close friends besides, their methods of working could hardly have been more dissimilar. Burbank’s formal education ended with high school, but he was inspired by the works of Charles Darwin. In 1872, on his farm near Lunenberg, Massachusetts, he produced his first “plant creation” – a superior potato developed from the Early Rose variety. It still bears his name. After moving to Santa Rosa, California, in 1875, Burbank created a stream of creations, earning the nickname “the plant wizard.” He developed new varieties of fruits, vegetables, flowers, and other
43. plants, many of which are still economically important. He began his work some thirty years before the rediscovery of Gregor Mendel’s work on heredity, and while he did not participate in the developing science of plant genetics, his work opened the country’s eyes to the productive possibilities of plant breeding. However, the value of his contributions was diminished by his methods. He relied on his keen memory and powers of observation and kept records only for his own use. He thus thwarted attempts by other scientists to study his achievements. Carver, on the other hand, was a careful researcher who took thorough notes. Born a slave, he attended high school in Kansas, Simpson College in Iowa, and Iowa State College, which awarded him a master’s degree. When the eminent black educator Booker T. Washington offered him a position at Tuskegee Institute in Alabama, he accepted. While Burbank concentrated on developing new plants, Carver found new uses for existing ones. He produced hundreds of synthetic products made from the soybean, the sweet potato, and especially the peanut, helping to free Southern agriculture from the tyranny of cotton. 1. What is the author’s main purpose in writing the passage? (A) To compare the products created by two agricultural scientists (B) To demonstrate how Carver and Burbank influenced American agriculture (C) To contrast the careers and methods of two scientists (D) To explain how Charles Darwin inspired both Carver and Burbank 2. The word drastically in bold is closest in meaning to (A) dramatically (B) initially (C) unintentionally (D) potentially 3. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the relationship between Burbank and Carver? (A) They were competitors. (B) Carver was one of Burbank’s teachers. (C) Burbank invited Carver to work with him. (D) They were personal friends. 4. It can be inferred that Burbank’s first “plant creation” is known as the (A) Early Rose potato (B) Burbank potato (C) Lunenberg potato (D) Wizard potato 5. The word his in bold refers to (A) George Washington Carver’s (B) Gregor Mendel’s (C) Luther Burbank’s (D) Charles Darwin’s 6. Which of the following a closest in meaning to the word thwarted in bold?
44. (A) Restored (B) Predated (C) Nurtured (D) Defeated 7. The word thorough in bold is closest in meaning to (A) complete (B) general (C) puzzling (D) precise 8. The author implies that a significant difference between the techniques of Burbank and those of Carver is that (A) while Carver kept careful research records, Burbank did not (B) Carver popularized his achievements, but those of Burbank were relatively unknown (C) unlike Burbank, Carver concentrated mainly on developing new varieties of plants (D) Burbank bred both plants and annuls, but Carver worked only with plants 9. According to the passage, what school awarded Carver a master’s degree? (A) Simpson College (B) Iowa State College (C) Tuskegee Institute (D) The University of Alabama 10. Carver developed new uses for all of the following crops EXCEPT (A) cotton (B) soybeans (C) sweet potatoes (D) peanuts Exercise 3: Choose the best option to fill in the blank in the following passage. Sleep By the time we (1)___old age most of us have (2)___ twenty years sleeping. Yet nobody knows why we do it. Most scientists believe that by resting our bodies, we allow time for (3)___ maintenance work to be done. Any (4)___ that there is can be put right more quickly if energy isn’t being used up doing other things. Sleep is controlled by certain chemicals. These build up during the day, eventually reaching peaks that cause tiredness. We can control the effects of these chemicals to some extent. Caffeine helps to (5)___us awake while alcohol and some medicines make us sleepy. By using electrodes, scientists are able to (6)___what goes on in people’s heads while they sleep .They have (7)___ that when we first drop off everything slows down. The heart (8)___ more slowly and our breathing becomes shallow. After about 90 minutes our eyes start to twitch and we go into what is called REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, which is a (9)___that we’ve started to dream .You have dreams every night, even if you don’t remember them. There are may theories about why we dream, none of them conclusive. A lot of people say they have to have eight hours’ sleep every night while others seem to (10)___on a lot less . One thing’s for sure – we all need some sleep. Going without it can have some very strange effects. 1. A. arrive B. become C. reach D. get
45. 2. A. passed B. used C. occupied D. spent 3. A. essential B. elementary C. needed D. main 4. A. harm B. suffering C. damage D. hurt 5. A. stay B. maintain C. make D. keep 6. A. exhibit B. study C. work D. think 7. A. seen B. researched C. watched D. discovered 8. A. beats B. hits C. moves D. trembles 9. A. clue B. proof C. sign D. signal 10. A. manage B. need C. get D. deal Exercise 4: Fill in each blank with the most suitable word. Many of us are still unaware (1)___or are indifferent to the need to preserve rare species. Some people argue that species have (2)___dying out since life began. "So (3)___ should we worry about them now?" (4)___ ask. They calmly believe that others would take their place. What these people (5)___not realize is that it will (6)___ millions of years before a set of species is evolved to replace (7)___ we are rapidly losing. These species are (8)___national heritage. We should not let (9)___die off. They (10)___ be preserved for our descendants.
46. V. WRITING Exercise 1: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have the same meanings as the given above. 1. The students usually hold the concerts at the university.  The concerts . 2. “When will you return to your hometown, Tim?” She said to Tim.  She asked 3. They were late for school because they missed the first train.  Because of 4. We didn’t find out about the meeting until he phoned us. Not until 5. He may spend the holiday in Japan when he saves enough money but I don’t think he can save enough money. If 6. It is believed that the man was killed by terrorists. The man 7. He was drunk last night because he joined the party. If 8. I think you were wrong when you asked your friend for helping you in your test. If I 9. There are no interesting films on this week. There is nothing 10. This kind of food has a really delicious taste. This kind of food tastes Exercise 2: Mary is going to have a birthday party at 7 p.m. on Sunday. She asks you to go to the market to buy some fruits and sweets with her in the morning. You agree to help her. Write a confirmation letter responding to her request. Write at least 50 words. Write in the following form. Dear Mary, Love, Elena ĐÁP ÁN
47. I. LISTENING PART 1 (11 points: 1 point/each correct answer) 1. Johnstone 7. B 2. 126 8. C 3. 0414847749 9. A 4. (about) 10 10. E 5. (Uncle’s) shop (work) 11. C 6. C PART 2 (9 points: 1 point/each correct answer) 12. B 17. B 13. C 18. C 14. C 19. B 15. A 20. C 16. C II. PRONUNCIATION (2.5 points: 0.5 point/each correct answer) 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (22.5 points) Exercise 1: (10 points: 0.5 point/each correct answer) 1. B 6. B 11. A 16. C 2. A 7. B 12. D 17. C 3. D 8. C 13. A 18. A 4. C 9. C 14. A 19. B 5. D 10. C 15. C 20. D Exercise 2: (5 points: 0.5 point/each finding + 0.5 point/each correcting) 1. A => because of 2. C => coming 3. C => have 4. B => which 5. C => is Exercise 3: (5 points: 0.5 point/each correct answer) 1. simply 3. governing 2. contested 4. competing
48. 5. qualification 8. widely 6. national 9. estimated 7. winners 10. hosted Exercise 4: (2.5 points: 0.5 point/each correct answer) 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B IV. READING COMPREHESION (35 points) Exercise 1: (5 points: 1 point/each correct answer) 1. G 2. H 3. A 4. E 5. C Exercise 2: (10 points: 1 point/each correct answer) 1. C 3. D 5. C 7. A 9. B 2. A 4. B 6. D 8. A 10. A Exercise 3: (10 points: 1 point/each correct answer) 1. C 3. A 5. D 7. D 9. C 2. D 4. C 6. B 8. A 10. A Exercise 4: (10 points: 1 point/each correct answer) 1. of 2. been 3. why 4. they 5. do 6. take 7. those 8. our 9. them 10. should
49. V. WRITING (20 points) Exercise 1: (10 points: 1 point/each correct answer) 1. The concerts are usually held at the university by the students 2. She asked Tim when he would return to his hometown. 3. Because of (their) missing the first train, they were late for school. 4. Not until he phoned us did we find out about the meeting. 5. If he could save/saved enough money, he might/would spend the holiday in Japan. 6. The man is believed to have been killed by terrorists. 7. If he hadn’t joined the party, he wouldn’t have been drunk last night. 8. If I were you, I wouldn’t have asked my friend for helping me in my test. 9. There is nothing interesting on at the cinema/on TV this week. 10. This kind of food tastes really delicious. Exercise 2: (10 points) The letter should be written in the form in informal style. The letter should include: • Expression about the birthday party • Expression about the agreement to help and suggestion for the time and place to go to the market together • Confirmation ✓ Organization& presentation: 25% ✓ Coherence & clarity: 50% ✓ Expression: 25% Total: 100 points
50. ĐỀ SỐ 6 SECTION I. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1: Complete the form below Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND /OR A NUMBER for each answer. STUDENT UNION REGISTRATION FORM Example: Name: Stefan Unger Your answers Degree programme: 1.___ Department: 2. ___ Leisure activities 3. ___ Type of accommodation: 4. ___ Contact number: 5. ___ Part 2: You will hear a psychologist being interviewed about friendship. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. 1. From three to five years old , children ___. A. Are happy to play alone B. prefer to be with their family C. have rather selfish relationship D. have little idea of ownership 2. From the age of five to eight to ten, children ___. A. change their friend more often. B. decide who they want to friends with. C. admire people who don’t keep to rules. D. learn to be tolerant of their friends. 3. According to Sarah Browne, adolescents ___. A. may be closer to their friends than to their parents B. develop an interest in friend of the opposite sex C. choose friends with similar personalities to themselves. D. want friends who are dependable. 4. Young married people ___.
51. A. tend to focus on their children B. often lose touch with their friends C. make close friends less easily D. need fewer friends than single people 5. In middle or old age people generally prefer ___. A. to stay in touch with old friends B. to see younger friends more often C. to have friends who live nearby D. to spend more time with their friends Your answers: Part 3: 1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ You are going to listen to a report from a local TV news program about the island of Samsứ in Denmark and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F) Your answers T F 1. The major source of power on Samsứ is oil. 2. Samsứ produces more electricity than it needs. 3. Americans on average produce more carbon dioxide than Dutch citizens. 4. The furnace is used for both heating and making fertilizer. 5. Farmers on Samsứ have lost money by changing to environmentally-friendly practices. Part 4: You will hear a woman called Yvonne on a TV programme giving about children being punished at school. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. The strap was a long piece of leather made especially for (1)___ children’s palms. Today, children who misbehave at school seldom even get a (2)___ In the fifties, Yvonne was strapped for coming to school in (3)___. Yvonne thought the way she was disciplined at school was (4) ___ and unfair. The members of organization P.O.P.P.I. all had (5)___. In 1979, because of P.O.P.P.I , (6) ___made the strap illegal. Yvonne describes her children as (7) ___ and irresponsible. Yvonne does not think her children understand (8) ___ they are. She is now sorry that the government (9) ___. She believes that there would be less (10)___ if the strap was still used. Your answers: 1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___
52. 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___ SECTION II: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (50 points) Part 1. Choose the word that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the box provided. (20 points) 1. I was really looking forward to going to the game and I could hardly wait until the ___ day came. A. grand B. big C. major D. huge 2. This disagreement is likely to ___ relations between the two countries. A. disaffect B. alienate C. sour D. estrange 3. I don’t want to be too ___ on Alice, but I think I should tell that her work isn’t good enough. A. strict B. firm C. stern D. hard 4. Once the story ___ the headlines , everyone was talking about it. A. crashed B. struck C. smashed D. hit 5. If I’m late for work again .I’ll be___ a severe warning from my boss. A. up to B. in for C. into D. after 6. Their flat is ___ of a place I used to live in . A. mindful B. reminiscent C. memorable D. retrospective 7. Of all the paintings in the gallery, it was this one that really ___ my eye. A. grasped B. snatched C. caught D. seized 8. Both the favourite and then the second favourite pulled out. Naturally, we thought we were ___ a chance A. un with B. in for C. in with D. up for 9. Despite all the interruptions, he ___ with his work A. stuck at B. held on C. hung out D. pressed on 10. Nobody is quite sure what___ him to such extreme behavior A. shoved B. thrust C. pressed D. drove 11. I can’t understand why you have to make such a ___ about something so unimportant. A. mess B. stir C. fuss D. bother 12. Despite being a very good student , she didn’t fulfill her ___later in life. A. makings B. potential C. capability D. aptitude
53. 13. You’re having problems now but I’m sure things will change ___the better soon. A. on B. to C. by D. for 14. You can’t ___that criticism to all teachers! A. apply B. employ C. associate D. lay 15. It’s not easy to make Stanley furious, the boy is very gentle by ___ . A. himself B. personality C. reaction D. nature 16.This evidence should prove ___ that he was telling the truth . A. once and for all B. now and then C. over and above D. from time to time 17. If you ___any problems when you arrive at the airport, give me a ring. A. come about B. catch on C. run into D. face up 18. The Kenyan runner set off with a ___ in the 5000 metres. A .blistering speed B. dizzy speed C blistering pace D. dizzy pace 19. Poor management brought the company to the ___of collapse. A. brink B. rim C. fringe D. make for 20. Josh was terribly nervous before the exam but he managed to pull himself ___and act confidently A. through B. over C. together D. off Your answers: 1.___ 2.___ 3.___ 4.___ 5.___ 6.___ 7.___ 8.___ 9.___ 10.___ 11.___ 12.___ 13.___ 14.___ 15.___ 16.___ 17.___ 18.___ 19.___ 20.___ Part 2. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. Write your answers in the space provided below. (10 points) line 1 A study into family health conducting in California comes up with some interesting conclusions, though these might not be accepted to everybody. The main conclusion line 2 is that for a family to remain healthy, the relationship between husband and wife line 3 plays a major role. The perhaps surprising aspect of this research, however, is that statistically the healthy family is optimistic, church-going, and leading by a line 4 traditional male. And perhaps not so surprisingly, what promotes the health of the husband does not necessarily promote the health of the wife, and vice versa. For line 5 example, when it comes to express emotions, it is generally assumed that giving an outlet to feelings is healthy. But according to the study, there may be beneficial for line 6 one party but not for the other. If the wife talks more than the husband does in these line 7 situations and gives him feelings of guilty, then he is likely to become depressed, whereby if the wife lets the husband dominate the arguments, then she in turn will line 8 be the one whose mental state will suffer. The study also found that when men dominate in domestical arguments, they often end up trying to avoid the real issue
54. line 9 or become silently and withdraw. This has the effect of making the wife feel anxious and depressed. As a person’s mental state is closely linked to their physically well- line 10 being, it is clear that the dynamics of family relationships help to determine health line 11 in general. line 12 line 13 line 14 line 15 line 16 Your answer: Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction 1 conducting conducted 9 2 10 3 11 4 12 5 13 6 14 7 15 8 16 Part 3: Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box provided. (10 points) 1. Are you really snowed ___ with work at the moment? 2. The students have fallen head ___ heels in love with their teacher. 3. I can easily while the whole afternoon ___ reading a good book. 4. I’m afraid our conference room is ___ use at the moment, but I’ll call you when it is free. 5. The students were all___ tenterhooks as they awaited the results of the examination 6. We all come to the station to see you ___. 7. When she put on weight, she had to let ___ all her clothes. 8. Tell me the whole story, don’t keep anything ___. 9. We decided to make ___ the nearest beach.
55. 10. If the government puts up incomes tax again I shall leave this country ___good and go and live in Spain or Greece. Your answers: 1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___ Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the colunm on the right. There is an example at the beginning (0). (10 points) Your answers Until (0)___(COMPARE) recent times science an technology 0. COMPARATIVELY performed different and separate functions , the progress of one so often 1___ completely (1)___(RELATE) to the progress of the other historians have established that ,since the earliest times ,the improvements in our way 2___ of life have resulted from an (2)___(EMPIRICISM) approach , that 3___ is a process of trial and error ,by which equipment from and tools are made to satisfy important needs . It is to this approach that we owe the evolution 4___ of technology. Our modern concept of science ,both ___ (3- PHILOSOPHY) an pragmatic in approach , stems from the seventeenth 5___ century ,when extensive investigations into the natural laws governing the 6___ behavior of matter were___(4-TAKE). It was this___ (5- REVOLUTION) style of thought which led to a science-based technology 7___ .Scientific knowledge was not in itself seen as a ___ (6-PLACE) for the earlier system of trial and error , but it did help the technical ___ (7- 8___ INNOVATE) to see which path of experimentation might be more ___ 9___ (8-FRUIT) .With the industrialization of the nineteenth century, the bond between science and technology ___(9-STRONG) .In our own time 10___ ,the mutual ___(10-RELY) of one discipline upon the other has increased still further Your answers: 1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___ SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (60 points) Part 1: Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the numbered box. (10 points) One of the hazards that electronic media like the television, radio or computers (1) ___ these days is the decline in book reading.
56. The concern (2) ___ mainly to the younger generations who are strongly tempted by the glamour of the silver screen and, consequently, don’t (3) ___ the importance of acquiring first-hand information from books. To (4) ___ reading for pleasure and to propagate a wide array of publications like encyclopedias reference books manuals or fiction, radical solutions should be applied. Firstly, more (5) ___ ought to be put on the educational factor. Youngsters should be made to feel comfortable while reading either for information or self-satisfaction in public place like airports, buses or on the beach. Secondly, libraries must be subsidized more accurately in order to provide the potential reader with (6) ___ choice of publications and to be come more publically active so as to put books at people’s (7) ___ rather than keep them under lock and key. Fund collecting actions organized by libraries might also raise the public awareness of the advantages of becoming (8) ___ in a good book. Finally, the mass media themselves might contribute substantially by recommending the purchase of valuable best-sellers and inspiring their viewers to (9) ___ their knowledge and erudition, and thus help them to (10) ___ the habit of spontaneous every reading. 1. A. denote B. play C. arise D. pose 2. A. indicates B. affects C. applies D. embodies 3. A. observe B. recognize C. view D. distinguish 4. A. incite B. revert C. instill D. encourage 5. A. emphasis B. persistence C. focus D. relevance 6. A. prolific B. ample C. lavish D. lush 7. A. available B. disposal C. benefit D. usage 8. A. occupied B. inhaled C. engrossed D. incorporated 9. A. enrich B. magnify C. arouse D. elaborate 10. A. grow B. evolve C. proceed D. develop Your answers: 1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___ Part 2: Fill in each gap with one suitable word. Write your answer in the box provided. (10 points) THE FUTURE AT YOUR FINGERTIPS There is a scene in the film Minority Report in (0) __which__ Tome Cruise stands in front of a vast Perspex-like screen housed in the police department’s Pre-Crime Unit. He gazes (1) ___ earnest at the transparent surface, waving his hands across the tablet to swirl great chunks of text and moving image across the screen to (2) ___ a storyboard of yet-to-be-committed crimes. With a simple twist of his finger or a flick of his wrist, pictures expand and enlarge, word scroll, and whole trains of thought come to tangible fruition (3) ___ there on board. The year is 2054. Yet it seems the era of true touch-screen technology is already here. Indeed, when Apple boss Steve Jobs unveiled the iPhone in San Francisco a few years ago, he grandly declared: “We are reinventing the cell phone.”
57. (4) ___ of the main reasons for Jobs’ bold claim was the iPhone’s futuristic user interface- “multi-touch”. As demonstrated on stage by Jobs (5) ___, multi-touch was created to make the most of the iPhone’s large screen. (6)___most existing smart phones, the iPhone has only one conventional button-all the rest of the controls appear on the screen, adapting morphing around your fingertips as you use the device, almost (7)___ the giant tablet in Minority Report. The demonstration iPhone handset certainly looked like re-invention, but multi-touch, while it was new for Apple, is (8) ___ no means a new technology. The concept has been around for years, waiting for the hardware side of the equation to get small enough, smart enough, cheap enough to make it a reality. While it still remains something of a novelty now, there is a good chance that the (9) ___ years will bring many more computers and consumer gadgets that depend wholly or (10)___ on multi- touch concepts. Your answers: 1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___ Part 3: Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the numbered box. (10 points) COMMUNICATING WITH THE FUTURE In the 1980s the United States Department of Energy was looking for suitable sites to bury radioactive waste material generated by its nuclear energy programs. The government was considering burying the dangerous wastes in deep underground chambers in remote desert areas. The problem, however, was that nuclear waste remains highly radioactive for thousands of years. The commission entrusted with tackling the problem of waste disposal was aware that the dangers posed by radioactive emissions must be communicated to our descendants of at least 10,000 years hence. So the task became one of finding a way to tell future societies about the risk posed by these deadly deposits. Of course, human society in the distant future may be well aware of the hazards of radiation. Technological advances may one day provide the solutions to this dilemma. But the belief in constant technological advancement is based on our perceptions of advances made throughout history and prehistory. We cannot be sure that society won’t have slipped backward into an age of barbarism due to any of several catastrophic events, whether the result of nature such as the onset of a new ice age or perhaps mankind’s failure to solve the scourges of war and pollution. In the event of global catastrophe, it is quite possible that humans of the distant future will be on the far side of a broken link of communication and technological understanding. The problem then becomes how to inform our descendants that they must avoid areas of potential radioactive seepage given that they may not understand any currently existing language and may have no historical or cultural memory. So, any message indicated to future reception and decipherment must be as universally understandable as possible. It was soon realized by the specialists assigned the task of devising the communication system that material in which the message was written might not physically endure the great lengths of time demanded. The second law of thermodynamics shows that all material disintegrates over time. Even computers that might carry the message cannot be expected to endure long enough. Besides, electricity supplies might not be available in 300 generations. Other media storage methods were considered and rejected for similar reasons. The task force under the linguist Thomas Sebeok finally agreed that no foolproof way would be found to send a message across so many generations and have it survive physically and be decipherable by a people with few cultural similarities to us. Given this restriction, Sebeok suggested the only possible solution was the formation of a committee of guardians of knowledge. Its task would be to dedicate itself to maintaining and passing the knowledge of the whereabouts and dangers of the nuclear waste deposits. This so-called atomic priesthood would be entrusted with keeping knowledge of this tradition alive through