3 Đề ôn thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2019 - Trường THPT Toàn Thắng

Nội dung text: 3 Đề ôn thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2019 - Trường THPT Toàn Thắng

1. SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HẢI PHÒNG BỘ ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QG NĂM 2019 TRƯỜNG THPT TOÀN THẮNG Môn : Tiếng Anh TEST 11/ TT Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. After a momentary _ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and completed the test. A. failure. B. lapse. C. fault. D. error. Question 2. Michael rarely returns to his hometown, _ ? A. doesn’t he. B. hasn’t he. C. does he. D. has he. Question 3. If you didn’t have to leave today, I you around the city. A. have shown. B. will show. C. would show. D. showed. Question 4. The prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning a house there. A. competitive. B. forbidding. C. prohibitive. D. inflatable. Question 5. The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to environmental consequences. A. far-reaching. B. far-gone. C. far-flung. D. far-off. Question 6. He promised his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present. A. to buying. B. buying. C. buy. D. to buy. Question 7. Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good education will enable them to in the future. A. get on. B. turn up. C. turn away. D. get out. Question 8. I’ve been waiting for hours. You to tell me you would come late. A. needn’t have phoned. B. must have phoned. C. oughtn’t to have phoned. D. should have phoned. Question 9. Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems child abuse. A. are involving. B. to involve. C. involving. D. involved. Question 10. You must not any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook the dish properly. A. leave. B. quit. C. skip. D. hide. Question 11. Only after he the job as a computer programmer did he realise how much he loved it. A. would leave. B. was leaving. C. had left. D. has left. Question 12. Susan has achieved great in her career thanks to her hard work. A. successfully. B. successful. C. succeed. D. success. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 13. A. charity. B. agency. C. origin. D. disaster. Question 14. A. behave. B. enter. C. allow. D. relax. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 15. A. fingers. B. attacks. C. medals. D. concerns. Question 16. A. mean. B. treat. C. wear. D. dream. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 17. Two students are talking about the school curriculum. - Ted: “Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum.” - Kate: “ . It is an essential life skill.” A. Not at all. B. You can make it. C. I can’t agree with you more. D. Oh, that’s a problem. Question 18. Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage. - Jane: “ ” - Mike: “It’s my pleasure.” A. It’s too heavy. B. It’s not my duty. C. Welcome back. D. Thanks a lot, indeed.
2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19. People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in the disaster- stricken areas. A. awareness. B. uncertainty. C. reluctance. D. willingness. Question 20. Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the country; she must be on cloud nine now. A. obviously delighted. B. extremely panicked. C. incredibly optimistic. D. desperately sad. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 21. The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm. A. cancelled. B. changed. C. delayed. D. continued. Question 22. The chairman’s thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the participants in the workshop. A. defined. B. hosted. C. triggered. D. arose. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among which the financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23) tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In addition to the direct costs of hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies, athletes’ village, security, etc.), cities often must build expensive new venues (24) lesser-known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional maintenance costs long after the Games have ended. While costs are the (25) concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For one, an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate sponsorship, and television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually made a large profit from the Games they hosted. (26) , hosting the Olympic Games confers prestige on a host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism. The Olympics are also an opportunity to invest in projects (27) improve the city’s quality of life, such as new transportation systems. (Adapted from “Skillful Reading & Writing 4” by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick) Question 23.A. surmount. B. outnumber. C. overcharge. D. exceed. Question 24.A. on. B. for. C. at. D. in. Question 25.A. influential. B. primary. C. supplementary. D. instrumental. Question 26.A. Otherwise. B. However. C. For example. D. In addition. Question 27.A. what. B. which. C. whom. D. who. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that body languages varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect. Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North America people don’t generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Americans who don’t know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them. Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move any other part of the body - to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places
3. it communicates ridicule. The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully. (Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold) Question 28. What is the passage mainly about? A. Misunderstandings in communication. B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures. C. The significance of non-verbal signals in America. D. Non-verbal communication across cultures. Question 29. According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, and American child is expected to . A. stand close to the person. B. raise his/her eyebrows. C. point a finger at the person. D. look directly at the person. Question 30. The word “intimacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to . A. enjoyment. B. closeness. C. strength. D. agreement. Question 31. The word “misinterpreted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to . A. mispronounced. B. misbehaved. C. misspelled. D. misunderstood. Question 32. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to . A. the country. B. an example. C. misspelled. D. misunderstood. Question 33. As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from another culture, it is advisable for a person . A. to use the body language of the people from that culture. B. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture. C. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture. D. to travel to as many countries as possible. Question 34. Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. distance. B. posture. C. gesture. D. eye movement. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology. Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also, they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no cost and with no pollution. Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer. One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared with other buildings of the same size. In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting systems, are also equipped with solar panels. A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400 families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas in new neighborhoods across China. Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green buildings improve living and
4. working conditions and also save money in the long run. (Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries) Question 35. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss? A. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings. B. Successful green building projects all over the world. C. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings. D. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings. Question 36. According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were initially considered unrealistic presumably because . A. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings. B. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century. C. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time. D. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then. Question 37. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to . A. recycled materials. B. green builders. C. rays of the sun. D. solar panels. Question 38. The word “insulation” in paragraph 3 mostly means . A. systems that protect buildings from the sun’s rays. B. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption. C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity. D. devices that monitor changes in temperature. Question 39. What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge and the project in Vauban, Germany? A. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs. B. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones. C. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems. D. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably. Question 40. The phrase “under way” in paragraph 6 mostly means . A. being notified. B. being launched. C. being inspected. D. being certified. Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings? A. Improving living conditions. B. Proving more economical eventually. C. Being friendly to the environment. D. Increasing work productivity. Question 42. According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is TRUE? A. They have only been built in technologically developed countries. B. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world. C. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens. D. They are more economical and produce no pollution. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 43. His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition. A. Such were his friends’ support and encouragement that he couldn’t do really well in the competition. B. Had it not been for his friends’ support and encouragement, he couldn’t have done so well in the competition. C. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn’t do well in the competition. D. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the competition. Question 44. Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker. A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course. B. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker. C. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker. D. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 45. “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Thursday,” said the teacher to the students. A. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. B. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. C. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
5. Question 46. They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the quality of the country’s education. A. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of the country’s education. B. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the quality of the country’s education. C. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the country’s education. D. The quality of the country’s education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes. Question 47. She wasn’t early enough to catch the bus. A. She didn’t arrive late for the bus. B. She arrived too early for the bus. C. She was too late to catch the bus. D. She wasn’t late for the bus. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 48. It is the (A) night of 5th November that people (B) in Britain light bonfires and have (C) fireworks as a (D) national tradition. Question 49. They have carried out (A) exhausting research (B) into the effects of smartphones on schoolchildren’s (C) behaviour and their (D) academic performance. Question 50. Most workers (A) seems to be happy (B) with their (C) new working (D) conditions. TEST 12/ TT Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. The costal city is extra buses during the summer because of a considerable increase in the number of tourists. A. turning out. B. making up. C. taking off. D. putting on. Question 2. Although she had been told quite sternly to herself together, she simply couldn’t stop the tears from flowing. A. bring. B. force. C. pull. D. push. Question 3. If our teacher were here now, he us with this difficult exercise. A. will help. B. would help. C. has helped. D. helps. Question 4. They were at the stadium with us last night, so they at the threatre then. A. needn’t have been. B. might have been. C. should have been. D. can’t have been. Question 5. to fame at an early age may have a negative influence on children’s psychological development. A. Approaching. B. Rising. C. Going. D. Reaching. Question 6. Her parents rarely let her stay out late, ? A. doesn’t she. B. don’t they. C. does she. D. do they. Question 7. Participating in teamwork activities helps students develop their skills. A. socially. B. socialize. C. social. D. society. Question 8. The boy denied the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin. A. to eating. B. eating. C. to eat. D. eat. Question 9. In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher’s permission is clearly a copyright . A. infliction. B. infringement. C. interference. D. interpretation. Question 10. These volunteer programmes aim to provide education for children in regions. A. far-sighted. B. far-fetched. C. far-reaching. D. far-flung. Question 11. The children by social networks are likely to suffer from depression and other health problems. A. obsessing. B. obsessed. C. who obsessed. D. are obsessed. Question 12. Only after the teacher the procedure clearly were the students allowed to go ahead with the experiment. A. was explaining. B. would explain. C. had explained. D. has explained. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 13. Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging question and
6. gave an unsatisfactory answer. A. got nervous. B. became aggressive. C. stayed confident. D. had a fever. Question 14. Winning the first prize in the National Math Competition was the highest achievement he got when he was at school. A. comprehension. B. success. C. failure. D. completion. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 15. The team entered the competition with great confidence after getting sound advice from their coach. A. sensible. B. tentative. C. audible. D. sensitive. Question 16. It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered species all over the world. A. adapted. B. improved. C. rebuilt. D. introduced. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 17. Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education. - Jenny: “I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life.” - Jimmy: “ . There were successful people without a degree.” A. That’s all right. B. I don’t quite agree. C. I can’t agree more. D. That’s life. Question 18. Adam and Janet are at the school canteen. - Adam: “ ” - Janet: “Yes, please.” A. It’s a bit hot in here, isn’t it? B. Do you mind if I sit here? C. Can you pass me the salt, please? D. Would you like a cup of coffee? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 19. A. affect. B. happen. C. perform. D. obtain. Question 20. A. assistant. B. president. C. companion. D. opponent. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 21. A. mountains. B. problems. C. moments. D. wonders. Question 22. A. threat. B. seat. C. meat. D. beat. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific math skills of elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (23) were published in the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical training to the development of higher brain functions. Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (24) a pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as well as time playing (25)___newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher on math and fraction tests than other children. Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain’s “hard wiring” for spatial-temporal reasoning, or the ability to visualize and transform objects in space and time, says Professor Gordon Shaw, who led the study. At the same time, the computer game allows children to solve geometric and math puzzles that boost their ability to (26) shapes in their mind. The findings are significant (27) a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a prerequisite to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math cannot understand move advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields. (Adapted from “Eye on Editing 2” by Joyce S. Cain) Question 23.A. which. B. whose. C. who. D. that. Question 24.A. composing. B. concerning. C. conducting. D. carrying. Question 25.A. at. B. for. C. with. D. of. Question 26.A. manipulate. B. accumulate. C. accommodate. D. stimulate.
7. Question 27.A. because. B. unless. C. before. D. although. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it’s what’s inside that’s important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing. When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you’re likely to meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform. Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there’s no need to abandon your individual taste completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else’s idea of what looks good, you may end up feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself. Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do take care not to go too far all at once. Reappraising your image isn’t selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will benefit. You’ll look better and you’ll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to read Professor Albert Mehrabian’s book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only seven percent on what we actually say. (Adapter from “Expert First” by Jan Bell and Roger Gower) Question 28. Which could be the best title for the passage? A. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits B. Making Judgements about People’s Appearance C. Making Your Image Work for You D. Creating a Professional Image Question 29. According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by . A. talking about other people’s behaviours. B. sending out right signals. C. wearing inappropriate clothes. D. expressing too strong emotions. Question 30. The word “outfits” in paragraph 2 mostly means . A. sets of clothes. B. types of signals. C. types of gestures. D. sets of equipment. Question 31. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be considered when choosing clothes? A. Places you spend time in. B. Other people’s views on beauty. C. Kinds of tasks you perform. D. People you meet. Question 32. The word “others” in paragraph 3 refers to . A. neutral tones. B. taste boundaries. C. colours. D. means. Question 33. The word “Reappraising” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to . A. reapplying. B. reconsidering. C. reminding. D. recalling. Question 34. According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other depends mainly on . A. how we speak. B. how we look and behave. C. what we read. D. what we actually say. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it’s highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behavior and fair play aren’t the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behavior are reasonable ways of getting what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behavior. What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss attitudes and
8. behavior with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player swearing at the referee, they can get the child’s opinion on that behavior and discuss whether a player’s skill is more important than their behavior. Ask what the child thinks the player’s contribution to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it’s important for members to work well together. Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behavior from players, think it’s amusing or even consider it’s a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to remind children that both are part of sport. However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don’t gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics of the badly behaved but often more publicized players. (Adapter from “New English File – Advanced” by Will Maddox) Question 35. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss? A. The importance of team spirit in sport B. The influence of model sportspeople on children C. Moral lessons for children from watching sports D. Different attitudes toward bad behavior in sport Question 36. The word “bolstered” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to . A. inspired. B. represented. C. energized. D. reinforced. Question 37. According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to think that . A. it is an acceptable way to win the game. B. it is necessary in almost any game. C. it brings about undesirable results. D. it is disadvantagesous to all concerned. Question 38. According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through watching sports? A. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players. B. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game. C. A player’s performance is of greater value than his behavior. D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team’s success. Question 39. The word “accentuate” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by . A. highlight. B. embolden. C. consolidate. D. actualize. Question 40. The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to . A. children. B. spectators. C. teammates. D. parents. Question 41. Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials. B. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media. C. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value. D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves. Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople’s wrongdoings than on their good deeds. B. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing. C. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams’ budgets than others. D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 43. “I’m sorry I haven’t finished the assignment,” Fiona said. A. Fiona apoligised for not finishing the assignment. B. Fiona regretted having finished the assignment.
9. C. Fiona refused to finish the assignment. D. Fiona denied having finished the assignment. Question 44. Many people think that the new regulations will encourage people to use less energy. A. The new regulations are thought to encourage lower consumption of energy. B. It is thought that the new regulations will encourage people to consume more energy. C. It was thought that lower consumption of energy was stimulated by the new regulations. D. Lower consumption of energy is thought to lead to the introduction of the new regulations. Question 45. It usually takes her an hour to drive to work. A. She never spends an hour driving to work. B. She used to drive to work in an hour. C. She doesn’t usually drive to work in an hour. D. She usually spends an hour driving to work. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 46. Drawing on her own experience (A) in psychology, the writer successfully (B) portrayed a (C)volatile character with (D) dramtic alternatives of mood. Question 47. It was (A) the year 2014 that Trang An (B) Scenic Landscape Complex (C)was made a World Heritage Site (D) by UNESCO. Question 48. My (A) close friends (B) spends most (C) of their free time (D) helping the homeless people in the community. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. He fulfilled his dream of travelling the world. He decided to get a job and settle down. A. Having fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided to get a job and settle down. B. Although he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided not to get a job and settle down. C. If he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he would have decided to get a job and settle down. D. As he decided to get a job and settle down, he didn’t fulfil his dream of travelling the world. Question 50. She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent. A. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the festival. B. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don’t know she has artistic talent. C. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don’t know about her great performance at the festival. D. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn’t know about her artistic talent now. TEST 13/ TT Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. meal. B. bean. C. head. D. team. Question 2. A. attracts. B. delays. C. believes. D. begins. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. intend. B. follow. C. decide. D. install. Question 4. A. equipment. B. sympathy. C. poverty. D. character. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5. Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has created favourable conditions for them to develop their business. A. peaking. B. decreasing. C. varying. D. rising. Question 6. With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for fear of getting into financial difficulties. A. spend money freely. B. save on daily expenses. C. dress in loose clothes. D. put on tighter belts. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
10. Question 7. Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important discoveries in different fields. A. confusing. B. accessible. C. effective. D. advanced. Question 8. It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information. A. inventing. B. distributing. C. classifying. D. adapting. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 9. The patients with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those receiving conventional medicine. A. treating. B. having treated. C. who treated. D. treated. Question 10. It to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his working hard during the term. A. lays. B. comes. C. gets. D. stands. Question 11. Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good on job interviewers. A. impressive. B. impression. C. impress. D. impressively. Question 12. You shouldn’t lose heart; success often comes to those who are not by failure.s A. put off. B. turned on. C. left out. D. switched off. Question 13. Mary rarely uses social networks, ? A. isn’t she. B. does she. C. doesn’t she. D. is she. Question 14. The presenter started his speech with a few jokes to build rapport with the audience. A. kind-hearted. B. soft-hearted. C. light-hearted. D. whole-hearted. Question 15. If Martin were here now, he us to solve this difficult problem. A. would help. B. will help. C. has helped. D. helps. Question 16. There is no excuse for your late submission! You the report by last Friday. A. must have finished. B. needn’t have finished. C. should have finished. D. mightn’t have finished. Question 17. Only after she from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health. A. would recover. B. had recovered. C. has recovered. D. was recovering. Question 18. Our father suggested to Da Nang for this summer holiday. A. go. B. going. C. to going. D. to go. Question 19. Several measures have been proposed to the problem of unemployment among university graduates. A. create. B. address. C. pose. D. admit. Question 20. It is advisable that the apprentice should be to learn the ins and outs of the new job. A. observant. B. acceptable. C. noticeable. D. permissive. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 21. Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games. - Silas: “Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?” - Salah: “ . We can’t afford such a big event.” A. No, I don’t think so. B. You can say that again. C. I can’t agree with your more. D. Yes, you’re right. Question 22. Laura is telling Bob about her exam results. - Laura: “ ” - Bob: “That’s great. Congratulations!” A. I’ve passed the exam with an A. B. I’ll get the exam results tomorrow. C. I hope I’ll pass the exam tomorrow. D. I didn’t do well in the exam. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct wordor phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that the difference (23) temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in both winner and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (24) occur in the
11. morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon. Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (25) it is not uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls or large buildings. In Singapore, the government has (26) to transform it into a “city within a garden” and, in 2006, they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 “Supertrees” – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (27) to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self- sufficient. (Adapted from “The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS” by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman) Question 23.A. with. B. in. C. on. D. out. Question 24.A. where. B. which. C. what. D. when. Question 25.A. but. B. for. C. or. D. and. Question 26.A. committed. B. pledged. C. confessed. D. required. Question 27.A. land. B. house. C. place. D. home. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the purpose of an application is to attract an employer’s attention and persuade him or her to grant you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what you want from the job. Like a resume, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with prefessional care, it is likely to be very effective. While the resume must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company. The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job. Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them “negotiable.” However, when you go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don’t want to ask for less than you deserve or more than is reasonable. (Adapted from “Select Readings – Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen) Question 28. What is the passage mainly about? A. Things to avoid during a job interview. B. Advice on how to find a good job. C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application. D. Differences between a resume and a letter of application. Question 29. According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to . A. advertise a product to attract more customers. B. present what he/she wants from the job. C. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview. D. get further information about the company. Question 30. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to . A. the resume. B. an opportunity. C. the letter of application. D. your work. Question 31. The word “explicitly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to . A. clearly. B. slightly. C. quickly. D. shortly. Question 32. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application? A. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style. B. It should refer to the applicant’s reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
12. C. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant’s resume. D. It should express the applicant’s dissatisfaction with his/her former employer. Question 33. The word “broach” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to . A. investigate. B. understand. C. introduce. D. avoid. Question 34. According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to . A. mention their expected salary range. B. talk about the company’s budget. C. negotiate working conditions. D. accept and salary offered. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved students’ behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their academic achievement. Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able to interact with Henry during his time at the school’s catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming effect on them. It was Andrew’s teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a school dog. “Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children’s conduct,” says Brown. “We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems.” Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for three years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. “Their anxiety about mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him,” says Johnston. Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, “I don’t see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity stunt. It’s the kind of sentimental story journalists love.” Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as popular as ever. (Adapted from “Ready for Advanced” by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern) Question 35. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? A. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants. B. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons. C. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School. D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend. Question 36. The word “adulation” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to . A. unrealistic expectation. B. deserved attention. C. considerable controversy. D. excessive admiration. Question 37. The phrase “a handful” in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is . A. difficult to control. B. inclined to disagree. C. reluctant to explore. D. impossible to understand. Question 38. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet? A. A stronger tendency to misbehave. B. A greater desire to influence others. C. Long-term chances in conduct. D. Better recovery from illness. Question 39. The word “one” in paragraph 4 refers to . A. a craze B. a Mulberry staff member C. a primary school D. a school dog
13. Question 40. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush? A. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy B. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload D. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes Question 41. Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5? A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons. B. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting C. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention. D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere. Question 42. Which of the following is implied in the passage? A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals. B. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their message across to young people. C. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students’ learning motivation at Dronfield School. D. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will benefit their students. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 43. “Would you like to go to the show with me?” Anna said to Bella. A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her. C. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her. D. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her. Question 44. I find it useful to join the sports club. A. I never like joining the sports club. B. I used to join the sports club. C. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. D. It is useful for me to join the sports club. Question 45. It is believed that modem farming methods have greatly improved farmers’ lives. A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers’ lives thanks to modem farming methods. B. Modem farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers’ lives. C. Modem farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers’ lives. D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modem farming methods. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 46. It is (A) the ASEAN Para Games that (B) disabled athletes have (C) an opportunity to have their talents and efforts (D) recognised. Question 47. It (A) concerns many socialogists that inadequate (B) parents skills may lead to an increase in the number of (C) incidents of(D) juvenile delinquency. Question 48. Teenagers (A) is greatly influenced (B) by not only their (C) parents but also their (D) peers. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before getting a job. A. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education. B. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job. C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job. D. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education. Question 50. Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to her. A. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to her. B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life. C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family meant to her. D. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent life.