Bài tập đọc hiểu Tiếng anh - Luyện thi THPT quốc gia (Có đáp án) - Tập 2

Nội dung text: Bài tập đọc hiểu Tiếng anh - Luyện thi THPT quốc gia (Có đáp án) - Tập 2

1. BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU TẬP 2 EXERCISE 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. You have learned about dinosaurs in school. Maybe you have seen them in museum. But how much do you really know about these animals? Not all dinosaurs were just big reptiles. For years, scientists thought dinosaurs were big, dumb, and cold blooded - in other words, just giant reptiles. Some dinosaurs were huge. But many were about the size of modern-day birds or dogs. Were dinosaurs warm- or cold blooded? Paleontologists- are not sure. But they believe some were intelligent. Of course, no dinosaur was as smart as a human or even a monkey. However, some smaller dinosaurs - like the two- meter (six-foot) Troodon — had fairly large brains. Was Tyrannosaurus rex a powerful predator? Some scientists think the opposite is true. In the movies, T.rex is often a speedy giant, but in fact, this dinosaur could not run very fast. Physically, it was too large. In reality, T.rex probably moved as fast as an elephant. Also, T. rex had very small arms. Without strong legs or arms, this dinosaur probably wasn’t a powerful hunter. It may have been a scavenger instead, only eating animals that were already dead. Did an asteroid kill the dinosaurs? An asteroid hit Mexico’s Yucantan Peninsula about 65 million years ago. It created a 180-kilometer (HO-mile) wide crater called Chicxulub. Many believe this asteroid caused the extinction of the dinosaurs. But even before this, dinosaurs were already dying out around the world, for many reasons. At the end of the Cretaceous period, for example, the global climate was changing and Earth's temperature was getting colder.Dinosaurs completely disappeared about 65 million years ago. However, scientists believe modern-day birds are descendants of certain dinosaurs. If this true, then dinosaurs' relatives are still walking - and flying - among us! (Source: Question 1: The best title for this reading could be . A. What Really killed the Dinosaurs B. The Facts and Fiction about Dinosaurs C. Dinosaurs Discovered in Mexico D. Our Favorite Dinosaurs Question 2: Which statement about the Troodon is probably TRUE according to the passage? A. It was as smart as a monkey. B. It was warm-blooded. C. It was a huge animal.D. It was quite intelligent. Question 3: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ? A. a speedy giant B. a powerful hunter C. a powerful predator D. Tyrannosaurus rex Question 4: According to the passage, at the end of the Cretaceous period . A. some dinosaurs started to fly B. the Earth's temperature was changing
2. C. humans appeared on Earth D. dinosaur numbers were increasing in Mexico Question 5: The word "descendants" in paragraph 4 means . A. ancestors B. phenomena C. offspring D. scavengers EXERCISE 2:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. Certain birds are, more often than not, considered bad luck, or even a sign of impending death. For example, all over the world, both crows and ravens have some connection to war and death. In early times, crows and ravens were thought to accompany the gods of war, or be signs of the gods’ approaching arrival. This idea later changed. Crows in particular were thought to be harbingers of ill fortune or, in some cases, guides to the afterlife. Woe be it to the person who saw a single crow or raven flying overhead, for this was most certainly a portent of death in the near future. Interestingly, though potentially bad luck for people individually, the raven is considered to be good luck for the crown of England. So much so, in fact, that a “raven master” is, even today, an actual government position in London. He takes care of the ravens there and also clips their wings, ensuring that these birds can never fly far from the seat of the British government. This way, the kingdom will never fall to ill fortune. Another bird that is thought to play a part in forecasting the fortunes of people is the swallow. Depending on how and when it is seen, the swallow can be a harbinger of either good or ill fortune. Perhaps inspired by the swallow's red-brown breast, Christian people initially related the swallow to the death of Jesus Christ. Thus, people who saw a swallow fly through their house considered it a portent of death. Later, however, farmers began to consider swallows signs of good fortune. Any barn that has swallows living in it is sure to be blessed in the following year. Farmers also have to beware of killing a swallow; that would be certain to end any good luck they might have had. Though many people think these superstitions are old wives’ tales, there is actually some evidence to support them. For example, crows and ravens, being scavengers, appear at the aftermath of battles. Thus, large numbers of crows and ravens could be good indications of war in an area. As well, swallows feed on insects that can cause infections in cattle. Thus, a farmer who has many swallows in his barn may actually have healthier animals on his farm. Therefore, the next time you feel inclined to laugh at an old wives’ tale, maybe you had better find out if there is any truth to it first! (Adapted from Reading Challenge 3 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea janzen) Question 6: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage? A. The crows and their predictions B. The different beliefs in birds C. Superstitions about birds D. Are birds bad lucks? Question 7: What does the phrase "this idea" in the first paragraph refer to ? A. Crows and ravens have some connection to war and death. B. Crows and ravens were thought to accompany the gods of war.
3. C. Certain birds are often considered bad luck. D. Crows and ravens were thought to be the sign of the gods' departure. Question 8: The word "portent" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to . A. augury B. suddenness C. confidence D. conviction Question 9: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about the ravens? A. They are driven away by people all over the world. B. The ravens are taken care of and videoed in England. C. The ravens are captured near the seats of the British government. D. The British realm will be fallen to bad chance if there are no ravens nearby. Question10: As mentioned in the passage, the swallow originally was considered as . A. the death of Jesus Christ B. good luck for farmers C. crop failure for the farmers D. good blessedness for the following year Question 11: The word “aftermath” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by A. happiness B. consequence C. beginning D. completion Question12: What evidence supports the belief in the superstitions mentioned in the passage? A. Swallows protect the animals on the farm from contagious pests. B. The swallows often come at the beginning of a new year. C. Ravens' appearance at the end the battle means that the war has stopped. D. Farmers prefer having swallows to seeing crows in their barns. Question 13: Which of the following most accurately reflects the author's suggestion in the last paragraph? A. The old wives' tales are more often used for fun than the truth. B. Although some superstitions are based on reality, people should not believe in them. C. People should not make fun of the superstition. D. Farmers should protect the swallows to prevent bad lucks. EXERCISE 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. The day after Thanksgiving is the start of the holiday shopping season. Thanksgiving is always on a Thursday, so the day after is a Friday. This day has come to be known as Black Friday. It has been the busiest shopping day of the year since 2005. Most stores offer great deals on Black Friday. They open their doors in the wee hours of the morning. They try to attract shoppers with big discounts. Some items like TVs are much cheaper than usual. Stores may even lose money on these items. They hope that shoppers will buy gifts for other people while they are in the store. Black Friday is a great time to get good deals. The problem is that there are not enough low- priced items to go around. Each store may only have a few. These items are in high demand. People stand in long lines to get such great deals. They may line up hours before a store opens. They may be hoping to get a low price on a TV or laptop, but not everyone who wants one will get one. Some people
4. leave disappointed. The situation can be tense. Some Black Friday events have been Violent. Large, eager crowds have trampled workers. Fights have broken out or people have been cutting in line. People have shot one another over parking spots. But most Black Friday events are safe and fun. Still, if you plan on going, expect large crowds and a bit of shoving. Question 14: According to the text, why do stores set prices so low on so they lose money? A. They want people to enjoy the holidays. B. They hope people will buy other gifts while they are in the store. C. They are in a giving mood because the holiday season is just beginning. D. They are trying to get rid of old items from last year to make room for new items. Question 15: Which is NOT true about Black Friday? A. Black Friday is always the day after Thanksgiving. B. Black Friday is the busiest shopping day of the year. C. Black Friday is a national holiday. D. Black Friday has been a little dangerous and uncomfortable. Question 16: Which best explains the main idea of the third paragraph? A. People stand in long lines on Black Friday. B. Black Friday is the best time of the year to get good deals. C. Black Friday is a really disappointing time of the year. D. Black Friday deals are limited and not everyone will get one. Question 17: The word "trampled" in paragraph 3 mostly means A. run over B. torn apart C. stepped on D. fallen apart Question 18: What is the. main purpose of the passage? A. to show the downsides of Black Friday B. to warn people about Black Friday C. to help us know about the origin of Black Friday D. to encourage people to save money for Black Friday EXERCISE 4:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. Alaska is disappearing slowly, but surely. It is estimated that since the 19505, as much as fifteen percent of Alaska's land area has disappeared. How can a whole state be disappearing? The problem is that Alaska’s glaciers are melting. The state has more than 100,000 glaciers. These glaciers account for about 75,000 square kilometers, or five percent, of the state’s area. That is an area of land larger than Ireland! According to a recent report by the US Geological Survey, ninety-nine percent of Alaska's glaciers are either retreating or diminishing. This diminishing seems mainly due to the increase in global temperatures. Since the 19605, the average year-round temperature has increased by almost 3°C. Additionally, the average winter temperature has increased by over 6°C. Presently, an estimated 100 cubic kilometers of ice is disappearing from Alaskan glaciers every year. It may be even more in the
5. near future, as some scientists predict that the average world temperature could go up 4 to 7°C by the year 2100. Another problem facing Alaska is its thawing permafrost. Much of the land in Alaska used to be permanently frozen or frozen for most of the year. Now, the thawing permafrost is causing a number of problems for people living in Alaska. Roads and utility poles are collapsing as the ground around and under them warms and soften. Also, the hard permafrost that originally prevented beaches from eroding during violent storms is now melting. People who live along Alaska's coasts are being forced to relocate. For villages on small low islands, one terrible storm could wipe out the entire community. The melting permafrost and increasing temperatures are both affecting the forests of Alaska. As the permafrost under the forests melts, insects that normally do not turn up until the warmer seasons are appearing sooner. The spruce-bark beetle, for example, is increasing in numbers as a result of warmer winter temperatures. It usually takes about two years for these beetles to grow and reproduce in. very cold weather. However, due to the increase in temperatures, spruce-bark beetles are reproducing faster and damaging as many trees in one year as they previously damaged in two. If something cannot be done to change things, Alaska's forests will not survive the turn of the century. Some scientists believe that human activity is linked to a global increase in weather temperature. Whatever the cause of rising temperatures may be, the fact remains that temperatures are warming, affecting Alaska for the worse. Horribly, this could be a preview of what will happen to the rest of the world in the next century. Question 19: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage? A. Alaska’s glaciers are reducing. B. The reasons Why Alaska is disappearing. C. The areas of Alaska’s glaciers are thawing. D. The problems Alaska is facing. Question 20: As mentioned in the first paragraph, the glaciers in Alaska made up . A. over 100,000 square kilometers B. more than 75,000 square kilometers C. about 5 % of the area of the state D. an area smaller than Ireland Question 21: According to the report by the US Geological Survey, which of the following is NOT true about Alaska? A. Climate change is the major reason for the decrease of Alaska’s glaciers. B. The average winter temperature has risen by nearly 3°C. C. Every year, there is about 100 cubic kilometers of ice melting. D. The majority of Alaska’s glaciers are lessening. Question 22: The word “permafrost” in the third paragraph mostly means . A. an area of land permanently frozen below the surface B. fuels formed underground from plants and animals remains millions of years ago C. a large mass of ice that moves slowly D. a very large mass of ice that floats in the sea Question 23: The word "relocate" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
6. A. remain B. restore C. disappear D. displace Question 24: According to the passage, the following are the problems caused by the melting permafrost, EXCEPT. A. The warm and soft ground makes roads and utility poles easy to collapse. B. The beaches are effortlessly eroded by violent storms. C. The insects which usually appear in warmer temperature do not come back. D. The trees destroyed by the spruce—bark beetles in one warm year are twice as many as those damaged in a cold year. Question 25: What does the word “they” in paragraph 4 refer to? A. trees B. spruce-bark beetles C. temperaturesD. insects Question 26: What is predicted in the last paragraph? A. Human activities are likely to increase the weather temperature. B. The Earth is getting worse due to the influences of global warming. C. There will be other reasons why the temperature is rising. D. Alaska's forests will disappear in the next century. EXERCISE 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. There are three basic types of classroom learning styles: visual, auditory, and kinesthetic. These learning styles describe the most common ways that people learn. Individuals tend to instinctively prefer one style over the others; thus each person has a learning style that is dominant even though he or she may also rely somewhat on the other approaches at different times and in different circumstances. Visual learners prefer to sit somewhere in the classroom where no obstructions hinder their view of the lesson. They rely on the teacher's facial expressions and body language to aid their learning. They learn best from a blend of visual displays and presentations such as colorful videos, diagrams, and flip-charts. Often, these learners think in pictures and may even close their eyes to visualize or remember something. When they are bored, they look around for something to watch. Many visual learners lack confidence in their auditory memory skills and so may take detailed notes during classroom discussions and lectures. Auditory learners sit where they can hear well. They enjoy listening and talking, so discussions and verbal lectures stimulate them. Listening to what others have to say and then talking the subject through helps them process new information. These learners may be heard reading to themselves out loud because they can absorb written information better in this way. Sounding out spelling words, reciting mathematical theories, or talking their way across a map are examples of the types of activities that improve their understanding. Kinesthetic learners may find it difficult to sit still in a conventional classroom. They need to be physically active and take frequent breaks. When they are bored, they fidget in their s eats.
7. They prefer to sit someplace where there is room to move about. They benefit from manipulating materials and learn best when classroom subjects such as math, science, and reading are processed through hands-on experiences. Incorporating arts-and-crafts activities, building projects, and s p o r t s i n t o lessons helps kinesthetic learners process new information. Physical expressions of encouragement, such as a pat on the back, are often appreciated. In addition to these traditional ways of describing learning styles, educators have identified other ways some students prefer to learn. Verbal learners, for example, enjoy using words, both written and spoken. Logical learners are strong in the areas of logic and reasoning, Social learners do best when working in groups, whereas solitary learners prefer to work alone. Research shows that each of these learning styles, as well as the visual, auditory, and kinesthetic styles, uses different parts of the brain. Students may prefer to focus on just one style, but practicing other styles involves more of the brain's potential and therefore helps students remember more of what they learn. (Adapted from Essential words for the JELTS by Dr. Lin Lougheed) Question 27: What topic does the passage mainly discuss? A. Fundamental kinds of learning approaches B. Different classrooms for different learner groups C. The most common way to learn D. Basic classrooms for individuals Question 28: The word “dominant” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to . A. successful B. foremost C. familiar D. distinctive Question 29: According to the second paragraph, visual learners ___ _. A. have a preference for sitting at the backs of the classrooms, B. must keep an eye on the pictures to memorize the content of the lessons. C. are easy to get fed up with the lessons. D. are not confident in remembering what they have listened. Question 30: The word “blend” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ___. A. division B. list C. mixture D.separation Question 31: What does the word "them" in paragraph 3 refer to? A. auditory learners B. discussions C. verbal lectures D.others Question 32: Which of the following is NOT true about auditory learners? A. They get information and the content of the lecturers aurally and orally. B. Reciting the lessons aloud is an effective way to understand the subjects. C. They always fidget when they are indifferent to the lectures. D. They merely learn well when they are able to listen to the lessons clearly.
8. Question 33: The following are suggested methods to attract kinesthetic learners, EXCEPT. A. merging arts-and-crafts activities B. integrating projects and sports into the lessons C. stimulating them by physical expressions D. isolating them in a customary classroom Question 34: What did the author suggest learners in order to keep in their mind what they learnt in the last paragraph? A. Practicing merely one style of learning to make the brain work more effectively. B. Using variety of learning methods to increase the potential of their brain. C. Using both written and spoken words to improve their logical thoughts. D. Identifying the most suitable learning style themselves. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 3– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 6:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. David Beckham is an English footballer who has played for Manchester United and Real Madrid, as well as representing his country 100 times. He moved to the Los Angeles Galaxy in 2007 to increase the profile of football in America. He married Spice Girl Victoria Beckham and has become a worldwide celebrity, an advertising brand and a fashion icon. Beckham was born in London in 1975. His parents were fanatical Manchester United supporters. His talent was obvious from an early age and he signed with Manchester United on his fourteenth birthday. He helped the youth team win several trophies and made his first team debut in 1995. He helped his team achieve considerable success in his eleven seasons with them. Beckham has been runner-up twice as world football's best player. He won many trophies with Manchester United, including the Champions League, and won a league title with Real Madrid. He also captained his club and country. He was famously sent off in a match against Argentina in the 1998 World Cup. In 2003, Beckham received an honour for services to football from Britain's Queen. Beckham has many interests off the soccer pitch and is rarely out of the headlines, especially concerning his marriage and children. He has established football academies in Los Angeles and London. In 2006 he was named a judge for the British Book Awards. He lives near Tom Cruise and the two are best buddies. Beckham is also a United Nations Goodwill Ambassador. (Source: haps://www.famouspeoplelessons.corn) Question 35: What is the main idea of the passage? A. The life and career of David Beckham B. Beckham's family background C. Beckham's life before and after getting married D. Beckham's marriage with a Spice Girl's member
9. Question 36: According to the passage, Beckham has played 100 times for___ _. A. Real Madrid B. Manchester United C. the national teamof America D. The national team of England Question 37: The word 'fanatical" is closest in meaning to _. A. inspired B. enthusiastic C. realistic D. idealistic Question 38: When did Beckham receive the royal award for his contribution to football? A. In 1995 B. In 1998 C. In 2003 D.In 2006 Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about Beckham? A. He contributed to the success of the youth team of the Manchester United. B. He made England lose the match against Argentina in the 1998 World Cup. C. He was voted one of the best football players of the world more than once, D. Some of BecAam's interests are not related to football. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 3– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. If "suburb" means an urban margin that grows more rapidly than its already developed interior, the process of suburbanization began during the emergence of the industrial city in the second quarter of the nineteenth century. Before that period the city was a small highly compact cluster in which people moved about on foot and goods were conveyed by horse and cart. But the early factories built in the 1830's and 1840's were located along waterways and near railheads at the edges of cities, and housing was needed for the thousands of people drawn by the prospect of employment. In time, the factories were surrounded by proliferating mill towns of apartments and row houses that abutted the older, main cities. As a defense against this encroachment and to enlarge their tax bases, the cities appropriated their industrial neighbors. In 1854, for example, the city of Philadelphia annexed most of Philadelphia County. Similar municipal maneuvers took place in Chicago and in New York. Indeed, most great cities of the United States achieved such status only by incorporating the communities along their borders. With the acceleration of industrial growth came acute urban crowding and accompanying social stress conditions that began to approach disastrous proportions when, in 1888, the first commercially successful electric traction line was developed. Within a few years the horse-drawn trolleys were retired and electric streetcar networks crisscrossed and connected every major urban area, fostering a wave of suburbanization that transformed the compact industrial city into a dispersed metropolis. This first phase of mass-scale suburbanization was reinforced by the simultaneous emergence of the urban Middle class 64whose desires for homeownership in neighborhoods far from the aging inner city were satisfied by the developers of single-family housing tracts. Question 40: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. The growth of PhiladelphiaB. The Origin of the Suburb C. The Development of City TransportationD. The Rise of the Urban Middle Class Question 41: The author mentions that areas bordering the cities have grown during periods of
10. A. industrializationB. inflationC. revitalizationD. unionization Question 40: The word "encroachment" is closest in meaning to A. the smell of the factories B. the growth of mill towns C. the development of waterwaysD. the loss of jobs Question 43: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a factor in nineteenth- century suburbanization? A. Cheaper housingB. Urban crowding C. The advent of an urban middle classD. The invention of the electric streetcar Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that after 1890 most people traveled around cities by A. automobileB. cart C. horse-drawn trolleyD. electric streetcar ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 4– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 8:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionary history, enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land, sometimes even to the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater with them in blood and cellular fluids. In addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects which we see all around us, other groups that have succeeded out of water include scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders and various worms. And we mustn't forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land, none of the other migrations could have happened. Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including breathing and reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later turned around, abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again. Seals have only gone part way back. They show us what the intermediates might have been like, on the way to extreme cases such as whales and dugongs. Whales [including the small whales we call dolphins] and dugongs, with their close cousins, the manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their remote ancestors. They don't even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air, having never developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles went back to the sea a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe air. However, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the water than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches. There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived before most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear to be close to the ancestry of all modern turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in
11. land or in water, especially if only fragments are found. Sometimes it's obvious. lchthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by measuring the bones of their forelimbs. Question 45: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage? A. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land. B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures. C. The reasons why species had to change their living place. D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live. Question 46: According to the first paragraph, reptiles, birds, mammals and insects A. were the ones living on the marine organisms. B. moved to deserts to find feeding grounds. C. left the water at the same time of scorpions, snails and crustaceans. D. are the species whose ancestors succeeded in moving from water to land. Question 47: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the water least completely? A. whales B. manateesC. turtlesD. dugongs Question 48: The word “ceased" in paragraph 2 mostly means A. stopped happening or existingB. got familiar C. began to happen or existD. decided to become Question 49: The word “incarnation" in the second paragraph could be best replaced by A. ancestorB. embodimentC. evolutionD. natural selection Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. Seals are able to live on land and in the water. B. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life. C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to live on land. D. lchthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins. Question 51: What does the word "they” in the last paragraph refer to? A. dinosaursB. fins and streamlined bodies C. ichthyosaursD. dolphins Question 52: It can be inferred from the last passage that A. the body features of the fossil animals help scientists to distinguish the terrestrial and marine species. B. turtles’ ancestor and dinosaurs became extinct contemporarily. C. it‘s clear to determine the living places of all species through the fragments found. D. the fossils of turtles and tortoises might have the similar appearances with dolphins. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 4– TẬP 2
12. EXERCISE 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or A to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. Orbis is an organisation which helps blind people of everywhere. It has built an eye hospital inside an aeroplane and flown it all over the world with an international medico team. Samantha Graham, a fourteen-year-old schoolgirl from England, went with the plane to Mongolia. Samantha tells the story, of the Eukhtuul, a young Mongolian girl. 'Last year, when Eukhtuul was walking home from school, she was attacked by boys with sticks and her eyes were badly damaged. Dr. Duffey, an Orbis doctor, said that without an operation she would never see again, I thought about all the things I do that she couldn't, things like reading schoolbooks, watching television, seeing friends, and I realised how lucky I am.' 'The Orbis team agreed to operate on Eukhtuul and I was allowed to watch, together with some Mongolian medical students. I prayed the operation would be successful. The next day I waited nervously with Eukhtuul while Dr. Duffey removed her bandages. "In six months your sight will be back to normal," he said. Eukhtuul smiled, her mother cried, and I had to wipe away some tears, too!' Now Eukhtuul wants to study hard to become a doctor. Her whole future has changed thanks to a simple operation. We should all think more about how much our sight means to us.’ (Source: haps Mooks.google.corn.vnj Question 53: What information can be learned from this passage? A. the best way of studying medicine B. the international work of some eye doctors C. the difficulties for blind travellers D. the life of schoolchildren in Mongolia Question 54: The word "she" in the passage refers to . A. the writer B. the nurse C.Eukhtuul D. the medical studen Question 55: After meeting Eukhtuul, Samantha felt . A. angry about Eukhtuul's experience B. grateful for her own sight C. proud of the doctor's skill D. surprised by Eukhtuul's ability Question 56: What is the result of Eukhtuul's operation? A. After some time she will see as well as before. B. Before she recovers, she needs another operation. C. She can see better but can never have normal eyes, D. She can't see perfectly again. Question 57: What is the writer's main purpose in writing this passage? A. to describe a dangerous trip B. to explain how sight can be lost C. to report a patient's cure D. to warn against playing with sticks EXERCISE 10:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, 13, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. Grandparents are becoming the forgotten generation, with youngsters now too busy to
13. listen to their stories from the olden days. A study of 1,000 five to 18 year-olds reveals just 21 per cent will visit their older relatives to hear about how their lives were different in the past; such as where they worked, how it was living in the war, and how they met the love of their life. More than half of youths have no idea what job their grandparent did before retirement - admitting they'd never thought to ask. Sadly, one in 10 admitted they are simply not interested in their grandmother's or grandad's previous job or talents and interests, and a quarter only turn up to see them for pocket money. But 23 per cent claim the reason they don't know anything about their older relatives is because they don't really get the chance to talk properly. Geoff Bates, spokesman for McCarthy 8/. Stone's Inspirational Generation campaign, said: We know this generation have lived full lives with heroic tales to tell and so much to offer, but how many of us have actually thought to ask these questions of our older family members? We want to shout about the amazing feats retirees have achieved in their lifetime and put the spotlight on the wonderfully colorful lives of today's older people. We are calling on parents and children to talk t o their grandparents, to find out what they have done in their lives - and continue to do , and tell us all about it so we can give them the credit they deserve." Researchers found that although 65 per cent of youngsters do see their grandparents every single week, 37 per cent claim this is only because their parents want them to. And while 39 per cent talk to their grandparents on the phone, Facebook or Skype at least once a week - 16 per cent once a day - conversation is rarely focused on what they are doing or have done in the past. Four in 10 kids have no idea what their grandparents proudest achievements are, while 30 per cent don't know if they have any special skills or talents. And 42 per cent don't spend any time talking about their grandparent's history -and are therefore clueless about what their grandmother or grandad was like when they were younger. Perhaps due to this lack of communication and respect, just six per cent of children say they look up to their grandparents as a role model and inspiration. However, grandchildren are agreed their grandparents are both loving and friendly, while 43 per cent think they're funny - with 23 per cent admitting they often have more fun with their elderly relatives than their parents. (Source: haps://www.independent.co.uk) Question 58: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage? A. Grandparents are outdated people in their families. B. Young people now do not concern much about their grandparents. C. Grandparents are not interested in telling stories about their life in the past any more. D. Young people are too busy to take care of their grandparents. Question 59: According to the study in paragraph 2, which information is NOT true? A. Merely over one fifth of people in the survey keep asking about the bygone time of their grandparents. B. Over 50% of the young don't know about their older relatives' professions before superannuation.
14. C. Most of youths visit their grandparents to ask for money. D. Nearly a quarter of young people don't have proper opportunities to converse with their older relatives. Question 60 : The word " feats" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to . A. accomplishments B. failures C. difficulties D. differences Question 61: What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to? A. parents B. children C. colorful lives D. grandparents Question 62: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that McCarthy & Stone's Inspirational Generation campaign . A. encourages people to ask more questions about their grandparents' jobs. B. would like to honour the retirees with their remarkable achievements and experienced life. C. hopes to give recognition to the older family members, D. intends to retell the heroic tails of the older generation and find out what they have done in the past. Question 63: According to the last paragraph, the proportion of the young voluntarily visiting their older family members every week is . A. 37% B. 65% C. 28% D. 39% Question 64: The author implied in the last paragraph that . A. youngsters nowadays are too indifferent with their grandparents' lives in the former times. B. more youths use modern technology to keep in touch with their older generation. C. grandchildren do not have much time to care for their elderly relatives' special skills and talents. D. lack of communication and respect is the main reason why youngsters are not interested in what their grandparents have done in the past. Question 65: The word "inspiration" in the last paragraph mostly means . A. disincentive B. encumbrance C. stimulation D.hindrance EXERCISE 11: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Since the early eighties, we have been only too aware of the devastating effects of large-scale environmental pollution. Such pollution is generally the result of poor government planning in many developing nations or the shortsighted, selfish policies of the already industrialized countries, which encourage a minority of the world’s population to squander the majority of its natural resources. While events such as the deforestation of the Amazon jungle or the nuclear disaster in Chernobyl continue to receive high media exposure, as do acts of environmental sabotage, it must be remembered
15. that not all pollution is on this grand scale. A large proportion of the world's pollution has its source much closer to home. The recent spillage of crude oil from an oil tanker accidentally discharging its cargo straight into Sydney not only caused serious damage to the harbor foreshores but also created severely toxic fumes which hung over the suburbs for days and left the angry residents wondering how such a disaster could have been allowed to happen. Avoiding pollution can be a fulltime job. Try not to inhale traffic fumes; keep away from Chemical plants and building-sites; wear a mask when cycling. It is enough to make you want to stay at home. But that, according to a growing body of scientific evidence, would also be a bad idea. Research shows that levels of pollutants such as hazardous gases, particulate matter and other chemical 'nasties’ are usually higher indoors than out, even in the most polluted cities. Since the average American spends 18 hours indoors for every hour outside, it looks as though many environmentalists may be attacking the wrong target. Question 66: The best title for this passage could be A. the devastating effects of environmental pollution in some areas. B. environmental pollution as a result of poor policies. C. indoor pollution. D. deforestation of the Amazon jungle. Question 67: Which statement about Sydney harbor is probably TRUE according to the passage? A. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a ship refueling in the harbor. B. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a tanker pumping oil into the sea. C. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a collision between two oil tankers. D. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a deliberate act of sabotage. Question 68: The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to ? A. spillage B. crude oil C. an oil tanker D. pollution Question 69: In the 3rd paragraph, the writer suggests that . A. people should avoid working in cities B. Americans spend too little time outdoors C. hazardous gases are concentrated in industrial suburbs D. there are several ways to avoid city pollution Question 70: The word "nasties" in paragraph 3 means . A. dirty B. kind C. composition D. dangerous ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 6– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 12:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Since the first Paralympic Games in Rome in 1960, swimming has been one of its main sports. The thrill of competition aside, swimming offers many benefits including strengthening the cardiovascular systems and the major muscle groups of both the upper and lower body. It also develops flexibility in the muscles and joints as the swimmer performs a wide range of motion against the
16. water's resistance. It is an activity that keeps your heart rate up but takes some of the stress that is common in impact sports off the body; injuries don't occur as easily. The water's buoyancy evenly distributes and supports the weight of the body; there is no danger of falling, and there are no impact forces on the residual limb. Swimmers who have disabilities endorse the sport because it gives them a sense of freedom. They don't have to rely on any supportive device, such as a wheelchair, to assist them. They are independent. They are only judged on their times and whether those times are dropping. “Water is one of the big equalizers,” said Queenie Nichols, long-time Paralympic swim coach. "One of the phrases I heard since I got involved in this is that we are all equal in the water and that is really true. Athletes with disabilities, from below-knee amputations to severe quads, can compete and compete successfully.” While it is not essential to begin swimming at an early age to become an elite athlete, Nichols believes that the sooner an individual becomes comfortable in the water, the better. "I think starting at about 5 years old is a good age to get children involved, in the pool at least once a week. Keep it fun for them until they show an interest in growing with a Club," she said. “Most clubs that belong to USA Swimming or YMCAs offer coaching and training at the appropriate level for age and experience,” Nichols said. "We suggest aspiring athletes participate with an able- bodied club at first because of the greater number of individuals they will compete with." Typically, swimmers in this introductory/ foundation phase, usually aged 5 to 8 or 9, remain there for about 5 years before transitioning to the next level, which includes more advanced drills and stroke efficiency. Athletes with disabilities who join swimming clubs benefit from better sport-specific coaching, more rigorous training, more competition in practice, and higher expectations than they are likely to receive in other settings. Other benefits include socialization opportunities, greater independence in activities of daily living, and improved ability to cope with limitations imposed by disabilities. Question 71: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage? A. The history of the first Paralympic Games. B. The development of the first Paralympic Games. C. The effects of the first Paralympic Games on the disabled. D. The benefits of swimming for the disabled. Question 72: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to . A. thrill B. swimming C. competition D. body Question 73: The word “resistance” is closet in meaning to . A. acceptance B. assistance C. dependence D. force Question 74: According to the passage, which of following is TRUE about disabled swimmers? A. They are independent of any supportive devices B. They are assisted by wheelchairs C. They don't support to swimming D. Swimming makes them restricted Question 75: It can be inferred from the phrase “Water is one of the big equalizers” is . A. Water keeps their balance
17. B. Swimming makes them feel very one - sided C. Swimmers are all equal when swimming D. Water is one of the most vital factors in the world Question 76: The word “elite” is closet in meaning to . A. intelligent B. eminent C. talented D. strong Question 77: Nichols suggested that aspiring athletes might participate with an able- bodied club at first . A. by dint of the bigger quantity of participants that they would compete with B. in spite of the bigger quantity of participants that they would compete with C. by dint of the smaller quantity of participants that they would compete with D. in spite of the smaller quantity of participants that they would compete with Question 78: As mentioned in paragraph 4, Athletes with disabilities who join swimming clubs can benefit . A. better than the ordinary people B. worse than the ordinary people C. better than the disabled athletes with talented ability D. better than the disabled athletes in other sports ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 6– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 13: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, 13, C, or D to indicate the correct answer of each question. The history of American newspapers begins in the early 18th century with the publication of the first colonial newspapers. American newspapers began as modest affairs - a sideline for printers. They became a political force in the campaign for American independence. After independence, the first article of U.S. Constitution guaranteed freedom of the press. The U.S. Postal Service Act of 1792 provided substantial subsidies: Newspapers were delivered up to 100 miles for a penny and beyond for 1.5 cents, when first class postage ranged from six cents to a quarter. The American press grew rapidly during the First Party System (1790s-1810s) when both parties sponsored papers to reach their loyal partisans. From the 1830s onwa rd, the Penny press began to play a major role in American journalism and its interests seemed to remarkably surprised the management board in the journal industry. Technological advancements such as the telegraph and faster printing presses in the 1840s also helped to expand the press of the nation as it experienced rapid economic and demographic growth. Editors typically became the local party spokesman, and hard-hitting editorials were widely reprinted. By 1900 major newspapers had become profitable powerhouses of advocacy, muckraking and sensationalism, along with serious, and objective news-gathering. During the early 20th century, prior to rise of television, the average American read several newspapers per- day. Starting in the 1920s, changes in technology again
18. morphed the nature of American journalism as radio and later, television, began to play increasingly important competitive roles. In the late 20th centuiy, much of American journalism became housed in big media chains. With the coming of digital journalism in the 21st century, all newspapers faced a business crisis as readers turned to the Internet for sources and advertisers followed them. (Adapted from Question 79: What is the main idea of the passage? A. The origin of American journalism. B. The power of American journalism. C. The impact of advanced technology on American journalism. D. The development of American journalism. Question 80: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word "sponsored" as it is used in paragraph 2? A. raised B. supported C. forced D. asked Question 81: What does the word "its" in paragraph 2 refer to ___. A. The American press C. the First Party System B. the management board in the journal industry D. the Penny press Question 82: According to the passage, what is probably TRUE about technological advancements in the 1840s? A. Technological advancements in the 1840s prevented the expansion of the American press. B. Technological advancements in the 1840s promoted the expansion of the American press. C. Technological advancements in the 1840s created new challenges for the American press. D. Technological advancements in the 1840s helped to increase the price of the American press. Question 83: It can be inferred from the passage that changes in technology again A. enhanced the competitiveness of journal industry B. reduced the competitiveness of journal industry C. negatively affected journal industry D. positively affected journal industry ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 7– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 14:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer of each question. Boots has reduced the price of "feminine" razors to bring them in line with men's. Th e chemist chain says it is just an isolated incident, but campaigners say it is part of a "pink tax" that discriminates against women. Who's right and what's the bigger story, ask Jessica McCallin and Claire Bates. Campaigners against what's been dubbed the "pink tax" - where retailers charge women more than men for similar products - are celebrating after Boots said it would change the price of some
19. of its goods. Stevie Wise, who launched the petition, was driven by a Times investigation which claimed that women and girls are charged, on average, 37% more for clothes, beauty products and toys. The New York Department of Consumer Affairs had compared the prices of 800 products with male and female versions and concluded that, after controlling for quality, women's versions were, on average, 7% more expensive than men's. “This is a very exciting response,” says Wise. We are delighted with Boots' decision, but we now need to get them to look at all of their products, not just the ones highlighted in the petition. We hope this decision is just the first of many and we may broaden our campaign to focus on other retailers as well." Wise says that women have been getting in touch with examples of other price discrepancies from lots of companies and says there seems to be a particular problem with toys and clothes. Argos has been criticized for identical scooters that cost £5 more if they were pink rather than blue. Argos said it was an error that had already been rectified and that it would never indulge in differential pricing. Among the examples sent to Wise was Boots selling identical child car seats that cost more in pink. Another retailer was selling children's balance bikes which cost more for a flowery print aimed at girls than a pirate print aimed at boys. But the latter example already appears to have been tweaked on the retailer's website, albeit by applying a £10 discount to the flowery version. When challenged over sexist pricing, both Levi's and Tesco argued that different versions of things could have different production costs even if appearing fairly similar. Prof Nancy Puccinelli says her research suggests that women are much more careful shoppers than men, better able to scrutinise adverts and pricing gimmicks. She wonders if women are perceiving more value in the more expensive products. “If products are separated into male and female sections far away from each other it's harder to scrutinise prices.” Such a situation could either be deliberate or accidental but the campaigners are not convinced. There is an opportunity for some companies, argues Olchawski. “The finding shows the power of marketing in our lives, how it shapes our perception of what it means to be a man or a woman. Some companies could choose not to play into this, not to play into the stereotypes and rip women off, but launch products more in tune with moves toward gender equality.” (Adapted from FELTS Academic Reading Test 6. Section 3) Question 84: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage? A. The campaign of the “pink-tax”. B. The price discrepancies between male and female versions. C. The power of marketing in ourlives. D. The battle over the gender price gap. Question 85: What does pink-tax exactly mention in the passage? A. tax for women B. women are being charged more than men for the same products C. men are being charged more than women for the same products
20. D. women are being charged more than men for the different kinds of products Question 86: After comparing the prices of 800 products with male and female versions, the New York Department of Consumer Affairs ___ _. A. did nothing B. drew a conclusion that versions for females seemed to be more expensive than for males C. supported for women's right D. continued to control for quality Question 87: The word "rectified" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _. A. worsen B. fixed C. spoiled D. broadened Question88: What does the phrase “the latter example" in the fourth paragraph refer to? A. a flowery print B. Wise's example C. another retailer D. a pirate Question 89: The word scrutinise is closest in meaning to? A. examine B. glance C. ignore D. retry Question 90: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Wise's statements? A. Women pay more for clothes, beauty products, and toys than men. B. Women have been getting in touch with many price discrepancies from lots of corn parries. C. Different versions of things could have different production costs even if appearing fairly similar. D. None of the above. Question 91: What of the following most accurately reflects the author's imply in the last paragraph? A. The campaign succeed B. The price for the same products will change to guarantee the gender quality C. People will change their mind about gender quality D. It should not be balance in the price of the same product between men and women ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 7– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 15: Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to answer the questions. People in the UK enjoy fewer years of good health before they die than the citizens of most comparable European countries as well as Australia and Canada, a major report shows. While life expectancy has improved by 4.2 years in the UK over the two decades, other countries have improved faster. In 2010, Spain topped the league. Its people could expect 70.9 years of healthy life - before disease and disability began to take a toll. Second came Italy, with 70.2 years and third was Australia, on 70.1 years. In the UK, we can expect 68.6 healthy years of life. Hunt said the UK was a long way behind its global counterparts and called for action by local health commissioners to tackle the five big killers - cancer, heart disease, stroke, respiratory and liver diseases. Drinking and drug use have been the main issues behind the worsening of the UK's ranking in early deaths among adults aged 20-54. In 2010, drugs were the sixth leading cause of death in this age
21. group and alcohol was 18th - up from 32nd and 43rd place respectively 20 years earlier. Hunt will on Tuesday announce a strategy to tackle cardiovascular disease, which he says could save 30,000 lives a year. "Despite real progress in cutting deaths, we remain a poor relative to our global cousins on many measures of health, something I want to change," he said. "For too long we have been lagging behind and I want the reformed health system to take up this challenge and turn this shocking underperformance around.” However, the problem is only in part to do with hospital care - much of it is about the way we live. Our diet, our drinking and continuing smoking habits all play a part, which assumes its responsibilities on 1 April. Question 92: The best title for this passage could be . A. Life expectancy in the UK in comparison with other countries B. The causes of early deaths in the UK C. Life expectancy in the UK and its efforts to solve health problems D. Five big killers in the UK Question 93: The word “cardiovascular” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by . A. respiratory B. digestive C. skeletal D. cardiac Question 94: According to the passage, what is NOT the cause of death in the UK? A. drug B. alcohol C. drinking D. food Question 95: According to the passage, Hunt is showing his attempt to . A. lower death rates B. better the health system in the UK C. take up more challenge D. change people's diet Question 96: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ? A. challenge. B. diet. C. problem. D. disease. EXERCISE 16:Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to answer the following questions. Most sources of illumination generate light over an appreciable period, and indeed if an object is lit for a very brief time (1ess that 1/25 second), the human eye will not react in time to see the object. A photographic emulsion - that is, a light-sensitive coating on photographic film, paper, or glass - will, however, record much shorter bursts of light. A photographic flash can therefore be used to capture high- speed movement on film as well as to correct deficiencies of the normal surrounding lighting. Photoflash is now generated electronically, but the earliest form, first used in 1864, was a paper bag containing magnesium wire and some oxygen-rich substance, such as potassium chlorate. When the bag was ignited, the metal burned with an intense flash. A contemporary observer reported that "this quite unsafe device seems to have done nothing worse that engulf the room in dense smoke and lead to pictures of dubious quality and odd poses.” The evolution of the photoflash was slow, flashbulbs, containing fine wire made of a metal, such as magnesium or aluminum, capable of being ignited in an atmosphere of pure oxygen at low pressure, were introduced only in the 1920's. In the earliest type, the metal was separated from the oxygen by a thin glass bulb. The flash was fired by piercing the bulb and allowing the oxygen to come into contact with the metal, which ignited spontaneously. Later bulbs were fired by an electric battery, which heated the wire by passing a small current through it. Other combinations, such as the pairing of oxygen
22. difluoride with zirconium, have also been used. In each case enough energy is given out to heat the oxidizable metal momentarily to a white hot emission of visible light. The smoke particles are so small that they cool rapidly; but since they are white, they contribute to the brilliance by reflecting the light from their still glowing neighbors. A slightly bigger form of the metal will burn for a longer time. Question 97: What is the best title for the passage? A. The history of the photoflash B. Theories about how the eye reacts to light C. The technology of modern photography D. The dangers of using the early photoflash Question 98: According to the passage, an advantage of using a photoflash is that it . A. can produce repeated bursts of light B. intensities colors in photographs C. is short enough not to bother human eyes D. supplements existing lighting Question 99: The word "ignited" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to . A. set on fire B. cut into C. opened D. shaken Question 100: Which of the following is TRUE about the function of the glass in the first flashbulbs? A. It produced the spark that initiated the flash. B. It magnified the light produced by the flash. C. It protected the photographer from the heat of the flash. D. It kept the metal and oxygen apart before the flash. Question 101: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to . A. oxygen B. battery C. wire D. current Question 102: The word "momentarily" in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to . A. effortlessly B. briefly C. electronically D. gradually Question 103: According to the passage, what helps a flashbulb burn longer? A. thicker wire B. more oxygen C. thinner glass D. continuous electricity Question 104: Which of the following most accurately reflects the main idea of the last paragraph? A. The time when photoflash was first used. B. How metal burns in an atmosphere of pure oxygen. C. How early photoflash worked. D. The role of glass in flashbulb. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 8– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 17: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. Women often complain that the men in their lives are not romantic enough. But men sometimes have trouble expressing their feelings, often resorting to cheesy Hallmark cards or pricey bejeweled baubles to do the job for them. But there is a far better way to be romantic and it doesn't involve spending a fortune or even opening your mouth.
23. In the days before courting consisted of hanging out and getting drinks, courting was a formal and dignified endeavor. Symbols were used to express feelings and thoughts deemed too special for mere words. During the Victorian Era, a whole romantic language developed around the giving and receiving of flowers. Everything from the type and size of the flower to the way it was held or presented conveyed layers of meaning and communicated a gentleman's feelings and intentions. Each bouquet contained a secret message for a lady to eagerly interpret and endlessly dissect. These days giving flowers has become a somewhat ho-hum cliché. Resurrecting this Victorian tradition will infuse the gesture with new life and romance and bring back some of the subtly, mystery, and fun of courtship. Your lady will swoon that you put far more thought into your selection of flowers than grabbing a bouquet out of the case at Wal-Mart. You'll come off as a real gentleman and a hopeless romantic. It can become an amazing tradition you'll both enjoy. Seriously, women eat this stuff up. Of course, even women nowadays have forgotten the meanings of flowers. So buy your lady a flower dictionary. And keep a copy for yourself (it's important that you both use the same reference, as the meanings were never set in stone and can sometimes vary from book to book). Then, each time you present her with a bouquet, she can search the volume to find what secret messages you have embedded in the flowers. Question 105: What is the author's main purpose in the passage? A. To complain that men are not romantic enough. B. To prove that men are not as romantic as women. C. To suggest ways for men to be more romantic. D. To explain what is called "romance". (Source: www.artofmanliness.com) Question 106: The word "dignified" in paragraph 2 mostly means _. A. serious B. trivial C. unimportant D. slight Question 107: Which of the following does NOT express a secret message for the female receiver during the Victorian Era? A. The kind of flowers C. The size of flowers C. The way flowers are wrapped D. The colors of the flowers Question 108: As mentioned in the third paragraph, it's so moving if a man. A. takes a bouquet available B. thinks of the flowers carefully before choosing. C. enjoys giving flowers to a woman. D. gives his woman something to eat. Question 109: What does the word "her" in the last paragraph refer to? A. your lady B. women C. yourself D. a flower dictionary ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 9– TẬP 2
24. EXERCISE 18:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. More often than not, you can't just "order up a job" by responding to an online posting and have it delivered in one or two days as if you were buying whatever your heart desires on Amazon. Even as employers are hiring at a higher rate than they have in the last several years, it can often take months to work your way through the job search process. If you are a new graduate yet to receive a job offer, if you recently moved to a new locale with your spouse or partner or if you are unemployed for any other reason, you may find success in your job search by spending time volunteering at a nonprofit organization. Both the nonprofit and for-profit worlds need people with many of the same talents. The best volunteer jobs for you to consider are ones where the experience you acquire will be applicable in the "for-pay" position you want to attain. It's often the case that once you display your passion for the organization and its mission, and have demonstrated your abilities, you'll earn strong consideration when a paying position opens up that can benefit from your talents. Even if you don't have a path to employment at the place you volunteer, by highlighting your volunteer experience on your resume, you can demonstrate that you haven't been wasting your time away staying at home watching the grass grow. There are a few strategies you might adopt when considering at which organization you'll want to volunteer. You' ll probably want to make a priority of volunteering to do what you've already done, or want to do, in the for-profit sector. Alternatively, however, it might make sense to volunteer to do something where you can turn an area of professional weakness into a new strength. Remember, as well, that nonprofit organizations maintain strong relationships with their corporate sponsors, and you might look for a volunteer position that would enable you to be that nexus point between the two. And, especially if you are recently out of school, you should look for positions that let you learn about an occupation, a field of interest or an industry. As you try to determine what you want to volunteer to do, and where you want to do it, make three lists: your marketable skills, the roles you seek and the kinds of charitable organizations you would want to support. For example, perhaps your skills cluster around accounting, marketing or event planning. Think about how these might come in handy for organizations that need financial help figuring out how to brand the organization to attract other volunteers or donors or run anything from charitable golf tournaments to gala dinners. (Source: Question 110: What is the author's main purpose in the passage? A. To explain why volunteer work is always beneficial to volunteers. B. To advice unemployed people to do voluntary work. C. To prove that people can have a good job via doing volunteer work. D. To describe the procedure to have a profit job. Question 111: According to the first passage, the following should spend time volunteering at
25. a nonprofit organization, EXCEPT _ . A. employers B. emigrants C. the jobless D. new graduates Question 112: As mentioned in paragraph 2, what should the volunteers pay attention to when searching for an unpaid job? A. They should not mention what voluntary jobs they have done in the resume. B. They should merely display their abilities when doing the for-pay jobs. C. The best type of volunteer work should be relevant to the one they want to get wages. D. The employers may think you have been wasting time doing nonprofit jobs. Question 113: The word "priority" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _. A. precedence B. unimportance C. demonstration D. preference Question 114: What does the phrase "the two" in paragraph 3 refer to? A. volunteer jobs and for-profit jobs B. volunteer jobs and their organizations C. unpaid jobs and corporate sponsors D. nonprofit organizations and corporate sponsors Question 115: What can be inferred from paragraph 3? A. Doing the voluntary work that you're not good at is not a good idea. B. Volunteering is a perfect time to change your weak points into the new good ones. C. Keeping contacts with corporate sponsors will help you to have a good-paid job in the future. D. It's ideal for graduates to choose the positions similar to the jobs they have learnt. Question116: The phrase "marketable skills" in the last paragraph mostly means ___ _. A. the practical skills you can learn from selling things at the markets. B. the technical skills for a particular job. C. the useful skills that make an employer want to give you a job. D. the skills you have been taught at schools. Question 117: Which of the following could best describe the author's attitude about volunteering when being unemployed? A. approval B. humorous C. skeptical D. disapproval ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 9– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 19: Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to answer the following questions. In most families, conflict is more likely to be about Clothing, music, and leisure time than about more serious matters such as religion and core values. Family conflict is rarely about such major issues as adolescents' drug use and delinquency. Nevertheless, it has been estimated that in about 5 million American families (roughly 20 percent), parents and adolescents engage in intense, prolonged, unhealthy conflict. In its most serious form, this highly stressful environment is associated with a number of negative outcomes, including juvenile delinquency, moving away from home, increased
26. school dropout rates, unplanned pregnancy, membership in religious cults, and drug abuse (Steinberg & Morris, 2001). Many of the changes that define adolescence can lead to conflict in parent- adolescent relationships. Adolescents gain an increased capacity for logical reasoning, which leads them to demand reasons for things they previously accepted without question, and the chance to argue the other side (Maccoby, 1984). Their growing critical-thinking skills make them less likely to conform to parents' wishes the way they did in childhood. Their increasing cognitive sophistication and sense of idealism may compel them to point out logical flaws and inconsistencies in parents' positions and actions. Adolescents no longer accept their parents as unquestioned authorities. They recognize that other opinions also have merit and they are learning how to form and state their own opinions. Adolescents also tend toward ego- centrism, and may, as a result, be ultra-sensitive to a parent's casual remark. The dramatic changes of puberty and adolescence may make it difficult for parents to rely on their children's preadolescent behavior to predict future behavior. For example, adolescent children who were compliant in the past may become less willing to cooperate without what they feel is a satisfactory explanation. Question 118: What is the passage mainly about? A. The dramatic changes of puberty and adolescence. B. How to solve conflict in family. C. The conflict in parent-adolescent relationship. D. A satisfactory explanation for family conflict. Question 119: According to the passage, what is probably TRUE about the conflict often arising in a family? A. adolescents’ drug use and delinquency B. clothing, leisure time and music C. religion and core values D. children‘s behavior Question 120: The word “unplanned” the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ? A. unintended B. designed C. developed D. shaped Question 121: Adolescents become less likely to comfort to parents' wishes the way they did in the past because . A. the environment is highly stressful B. their critical-thinking skills is growing C. it is related to drug abuse D. parent-adolescent relationships lead to conflicts Question 122: According to the passage, the word “it” may refer to . A. remark B. adolescent C. ego-centrism D. None of the above ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 10– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 20:Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to answer the following questions. Volunteering offers many of the same social benefits, with the added bonus of helping others and developing useful skills to put on your CV. Plus, students are in a unique position to help, suggests Tom Fox. "They can take their enthusiasm and excitement for opportunities and share their passions, subject
27. knowledge and experience with people." The idea of giving up time for nothing might seem impractical at first, especially once the pressures of study and coursework or exams begin to mount up. However, Michelle Wright, CEO of charity support organization Cause4, suggests seeing volunteering as a two- way street. "I think it is fine for undergraduates to approach volunteering as a symbiotic relationship where doing good is just one part of the motivation for reaching personal and professional goals." Katerina Rudiger, head of skills and policy campaigns at the Chartered Institute of Personnel and Development (CIPD), says: "Volunteering can be a valuable way of gaining that experience, as well as building confidence, broadening your horizons, becoming a better team player and developing those all- important 'employability skills' such as communication and decision making." Amanda Haig, graduate HR manager, agrees that volunteering can help your employment prospects. "Volunteering can demonstrate positive personality traits and skill sets, such as proactivity, and teamwork," she says. A positive side-effect of volunteering is improving your time at university by getting involved in the local community. Leaving the student bubble can make your time as an undergraduate much more varied. At Bath Spa University, more than 1,000 students volunteered over the past year, doing everything from working on local environmental projects to helping in schools or assisting the elderly. ”Quite often there can be a divide between students and permanent residents," says students' union president Amy Dawson, "but if students invest a little time now, they will be giving something back to the local community and will reap the benefits in the future." “You might also find that volunteering helps your studies if you choose the right program. At Lancaster, volunteering is linked into academic modules in some cases", explains Fox. "This has multiple wins. Students get to apply their learning in the classroom and share their interests with children in local schools or community organizations, while schools gain skilled students with a passion for a subject that enthuses their pupils." Question 123: What is the most suitable title for this reading? A. Volunteering at university B. Volunteering helps employment prospects C. Students should take part in extracurricular activities to put it on CV D. The virtues of volunteering Question 124: Which of the following information is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1? A. Many social benefits are provided by volunteering. B. Students are likely to be enthusiastic for chances and share their interests with people. C. Volunteering might increase the pressures of study and coursework or exam. D. Michelle Wright recommends seeing volunteering as a two-way street. Question 125: What is inferred from Michelle Wright’s opinion about volunteering? A. It helps to build confidence and broaden the horizons. B. It is a part of the motivation for reaching personal and professional goals. C. It helps to demonstrate positive personality traits and skill sets, such as proactivity, and teamwork
28. D. It helps students to take their enthusiasm and excitement for opportunities and share their passions. Question 126: The word “gaining” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by . A. getting B. making C. lacking D. taking Question 127: Personality traits and skill sets include . A. communication and decision - making B. proactivity and collaboration C. proactivity and confidence D. passions, subject knowledge and experience. Question 128: What does the word “side-effect” mean? A. additional result that you did not expect or want B. an extra good result C. another side of a street D. a two-way street Question 129: What does the word "they" refer to in paragraph 3? A. projects B. residents C. students D. benefits Question 130: Which of the following most accurately reflects Fox’s explanation in the last paragraph? A. Students at universities must join at least one activity in volunteer campaign at local schools. B. Students at universities should join as many activities in volunteer campaign at local schools as possible. C. Students at universities who join volunteer work will gain a lot of purposes for the community only. D. Students at universities who join volunteer work will gain a lot of purposes for not only themselves but also the community. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 10– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 21: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. Mark Zuckerberg was born in 1984, in New York, into a prosperous, professional family. He developed an interest in computers at an early age and when he was twelve, he created a messaging program which he named "Zucknet". His dentist father used it in his surgery so that his receptionist could inform him of the arrival of a patient without yelling across the room. Together with his friends, Mark spent much of his spare time as a boy designing and making computer games just for fun. In 2002, Mark enrolled at Harvard University. By his second year at the institution, he had acquired a reputation on the campus as a developer of software. It was at that time he invented "Facemash" which compared pictures of female students and allowed users to vote on which one was the most attractive. The program became very popular on campus, but was later shut down by the university authorities who deemed it 'inappropriate'. Based on the buzz of "Facemash", three of Mark's fellow students, Divya Narendra, and twins, Cameron and Tyler Winklevoss, asked him to work with them on an idea for a social
29. networking site called "Harvard Connection". This site was designed to use information from Harvard's student networks to create a dating site for the university's elite. Mark was initially enthusiastic about the complex project but boredom soon set in and he backed out of it to work on his own social networking site. He created a site that allowed users to produce their own profiles, upload photos, and communicate with other people beyond the confines of the university. He called the site "Facebook" and he operated from one small college room until June 2004 when he finally abandoned his studies to devote himself fully to Facebook and moved the company to California. By the end of 2004, Facebook had one million users and Mark was climbing high. (Source: Question 131: According to the passage, during his time at university, Mark ___ _. A. was known for developing unsuitable software B. made a program that was disliked by the authorities C. developed an unsuccessful program D. produced education programs Question 132: The word "This site" in paragraph 3 refers to_. A. Facemash B. Harvard Connection C. Facebook D. Zucknet Question 133: The Facebook social network developed at Harvard ___ _. A. was a collaborative project with other students B. could only be accessed by Harvard students C. became Mark's full-time job after completing university D. became really successful after June 2004 Question 134: What is the word "backed out of " in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to? A. kept in mind B. changed his mind C. made up his mind D. blew one's mind Question 135: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? A. The Inventor Of Facebook B. The Legal Dispute Over Facebook C. The Harvard Connection Creators D. The Success of Facebook ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 11– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 22:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or V to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. How busy is too busy? For some it means having to miss the occasional long lunch; for others, it means missing lunch altogether. For a few, it is not being able to take a "sickie" once a month. Then there is a group of people for whom working every evening and weekend is normal, and frantic is the tempo of their lives. For most senior executives, workloads swing between extremely busy and frenzied. The vice-president of the management consultancy AT Kearney and its head of telecommunications for the Asia-Pacific region, Neil Plumridge, says his work weeks vary from
30. a “manageable” 45 hours to 80 hours, but average 60 hours. Three warning signs alert Plumridge about his workload: sleep, scheduling and family. He knows he has too much on when he gets less than six hours of sleep for three cons ecutive nights; when he is constantly having to reschedule appointments; "and the third one is on the family side", says Plumridge, the father of a three-year-old daughter, and expecting a second child in October. "If I happen to miss a birthday or anniversary, I know things are out of control." Being "too busy" is highly subjective. But for any individual, the perception of being too busy over a prolonged period can start showing up as stress: disturbed sleep, and declining mental and physical health. National workers' compensation figures show stress causes the most lost time of any workplace injury. Employees suffering stress are off work an average of 16.6 weeks. The effects of stress are also expensive. Comcare, the Federal Government insurer, reports that in 2003-04, claims for psychological injury accounted for 7% of claims but almost 27% of claim costs. Experts say the key to dealing with stress is not to focus on relief - a game of golf or a massage - but to reassess workloads. Neil Plumridge says he makes it a priority to work out what has to change; that might mean allocating extra resources to a job, allowing more time or changing expectations. The decision may take several days. He also relies on the advice of colleagues, saying his peers coach each other with business problems. "Just a fresh pair of eyes over an issue can help," he says. Executive stress is not confined to big organizations. Vanessa Stoykov has been running her own advertising and public relations business for seven years, specializing in work for financial and professional services firms, Evolution Media has grown so fast that it debuted on the BRW Fast 100 list of fastest-growing small enterprises last year - just after Stoykov had her first child. Stoykov thrives on the mental stimulation of running her own business. "Like everyone, I have the occasional day when I think my head's going to blow off," she says. Because of the growth phase the business is in, Stoykov has to concentrate on short-term stress relief - weekends in the mountains, the occasional "mental health" day -rather than delegating more work, She says: “We're hiring more people, but you need to train them, teach them about the culture and the clients, so it's actually more work rather than less.” Question 136: Which of the following could be the title of the passage? A. The stress of workplace B. The average of working hours of senior executives C. Some major groups of busy people D. The warning signs of workload (Source: www.ielts-mentor.com) Question 137: The word "consecutive" in paragraph 2 mostly means_. A. interrupted B. solitary C. successive D. intermittent Question 138: According to the vice-president of the management consultancy AT Kearney and its head of telecommunications for the Asia-Pacific region, Neil Plumridge, what is NOT the warning sign about his workload?
31. A. not having enough time to sleep B. continuously rearranging his appointments C. not being able to attend his family's celebrations D. spending too much time for his family and children Question 139: As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following sentences are true about the work stress, EXCEPT_. A. Disturbed sleep and reducing mental and physical health are the symptom of being too busy. B. The lost time caused by stress ranks last in comparison with other workplace injuries. C. The cost paid for psychological injury was rather high. D. Relief is not the effective way to cope with stress. Question 140: The word "reassess" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ___ _. A. re-evaluate B. consider C. reduce D. estimate Question 141: What does the word "he" in paragraph 2 refer to? A. Comcare, the Federal Government insurer B. Expert C. Neil Plumridge, The vice-president of the management consultancy AT Kearney D. Employee Question 142: According to the last paragraph, what measure does Vanessa Stoykov take to reduce work stress? A. delegating more work B. taking brief vacations on weekends C. hiring more people D. allowing more time or changing expectations Question 143: It can be inferred from the passage that ___ _. A. stress appears in almost every position in workplace. B. employees working in big organizations will suffer more stress than others. C. the more the business grows, the more stress people get. D. good colleagues can help to reduce stress. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 11– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 23: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. The majority of medium and large companies pay higher wage rates to men than to women, according to the latest government figures. The disparity, known as the gender pay gap, reflects the different average hourly salaries earned by men and women. The government data showed 74% of firms pay higher rates to their male staff. just 15% of businesses with more than 250 employees pay more to women. As many as 11% of firms said there is no difference between the rates paid to either gender. Unlike pay inequality - which compares the wages of men and women doing the same job - a gender pay difference at a company is not illegal, but could possibly reflect discrimination. The average gender pay gap across all medium and large-sized firms is now 8.2%, as measured by median pay. in
32. other words, men typically earn over 8% more per hour than women. Among those with the largest gender pay gap are airlines such as Tui and Easyjet, and banks including Virgin Money, the Clydesdale and TSB. Easyjet has said its pay gap of 45.5% is down to the fact that most of its pilots are male, while most of its more modestly paid cabin crew are female. Tui Airways - where men earn 47% more than 214women - has the same issue. Many banks also appear to have a gender bias on salaries. The Bank of England's wage rate for men is 24% higher than for its female employees. By law, all firms with more than 250 staff must report their gender pay gap to the government by 4 April this year. So far only 1,047 firms have complied, leaving another 8,000 to go. Carolyn Fairbairn, director general of the CBI, denied companies were dragging their feet in reporting the data. "I don't see a reluctance," she told the Today programme. "I think this is genuinely quite difficult data to find, it is often sitting on different systems and firms are working very hard towards that deadline. Question 144: The best title for this passage could be . A. Gender pay gap: Men still earn more than women at most firms. B. The latest government figures show gender pay gap. C. Many banks and airlines have a gender bias on salaries. D. Companies should pay more for women because of their abilities. Question 145: Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph 1? A. Only 15% of businesses with less than 250 employees pay more to females. B. Most of medium and big firms pay lower wage rates to females than to male. C. The findings from the government illustrated that nearly One third of firms pay higher rates to their female workers. D. As many as approximately one tenth of firms is stated to have great difference between the rates paid to gender. Question 146: In the 2rd paragraph, the writer says the reason why Tui Airways also have gender pay gap is because . A. this is the place where men earn 47% less than women. B. this is the place where men hardly earn over 8% more per hour than women. C. most of its pilots are male, while most of its more modestly paid cabin crew are female D. it has the largest gender pay gap. Question 147: The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to ? A. the governments B. employees C. staff D. all firms Question 148: The phrase "dragging their feet" in paragraph 3 means . A. succeeding B. running quickly C. walking slowly D. doing something slowly ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 12– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 24:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Robots are useful for exploring and working in space. In particular, many robots have been sent to explore Mars. Such robots have usually looked like a box with wheels. Though these robots are
33. useful, by their very nature they are unreliable, extremely expensive, and they break easily. Also, they cannot do very many tasks. Because of these problems, scientists have been developing a new and unusual kind of robot. These new robots move like snakes, so they have been given the name "snakebots." The way a snake is shaped lets it get into very small spaces, like cracks in rocks. It can also push its way below the ground or climb up different kinds of objects, like high rocks and trees. Such abilities account for the usefulness of a robot designed like a snake. A snakebot would be able to do these things, too, making it much more effective than regular robots with wheels, which easily get stuck or fall over. Since they can carry tools, snakebots would be able to work in space, as well. They could, for example, help repair the International Space Station. But how can such a robot shape be made? A snakebot is built like a Chain made of about thirty parts, or modules. Each module is basically the same in that they all have a small computer and a wheel to aid movement. The large computer in the "head” of the snake makes all of the modules in a snakebot work together. The modular design of the snakebot has many advantages. If one module fails, another can be added easily. Snakebot modules can also carry different kinds of tools, as well as cameras. Since each module is actually a robot in itself, one module can work apart from the rest if necessary. That is, all the modules can separate and move on their own, and then later, reconnect back into a larger robot. Researchers are also trying to develop snakebots made of a special kind of plastic that can change its shape using electricity, almost like animal muscles. Snakebots made with this plastic will be very strong and hard to break. Overall, the snakebot design is much simpler than that of common robots. Thus, snakebots will be much less expensive to build. For example, a robot recently sent to Mars cost over a hundred million dollars, whereas snakebots can cost as little as a few hundred dollars. With their versatility and affordability, snakebots seem to be the wave of the future, at least as far as space robots are concerned. Question 149: What topic does the passage mainly focus on? A. The differences between the old robots and the new ones. B. The reasons for the appearance of the snakebots. C. The composition and abilities of the snakebots. D. The physical appearance and problems of the snakebots. Question 150: According to paragraph 1, the following are disadvantages of the common robots which have been on Mars, EXCEPT . A. uselessness B. high manufacturing cost C. fragility D. difficulty in moving Question 151: What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to ? A. Wheels B. regular robots C. these things D. snakebots Question 152: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about the snakebots? A. They can move through myriad difficult terrains. B. They are easier to get stuck or fall over than other kinds of robots.
34. C. They are unable to work in space like a regular robot. D. They are made of over thirty different modules. Question 153: The author implied in paragraph 4 that a snakebot only completely stops working when . A. the head of the snake has something wrong. B. all the modules cannot reconnect with each other. C. the whole parts of the snake are broken down. D. the energy battery in the snakebot runs out of. Question 154: The word "separate" in paragraph 4 mostly means . A. join together B. divide into many different parts C. control others to work in the way you want D. have effects on others and the way they develop. Question 155: The word “versatility” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to . A. flexibility B. rigidity C. firmness D. ability Question 156: Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward the new kind of robot? A. criticize B. admire C. appreciate D. disapprove ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 12– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 25: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. Before the grass has thickened on the roadside verges and leaves have started growing on the trees is a perfect time to look around and see just how dirty Britain has become. The pavements are stained with chewing gum that has been spat out and the gutters are full of discarded fast food cartons. Years ago I remember travelling abroad and being saddened by the plastic bags, discarded bottles and soiled nappies at the edge of every road. Nowadays, Britain seems to look at least as bad. What has gone wrong? The problem is that the rubbish created by our increasingly mobile lives lasts a lot longer than before. If it is not cleared up and properly thrown away, it stays in the undergrowth for years; a semi-permanent reminder of what a tatty little country we have now. Firstly, it is estimated that 10 billion plastic bags have been given to shoppers. These will take anything from 100 to 1,000 years to rot. However, it is not as if there is no solution to this. A few years ago, the Irish government introduced a tax on non-recyclable carrier bags and in three months reduced their use by 90%. When he was a minister, Michael Meacher attempted to introduce a similar arrangement in Britain. The plastics industry protested, of course. However, they need not have bothered; the idea was killed before it could draw breath, leaving supermarkets free to give away plastic bags. What is clearly necessary right now is some sort of combined initiative, both individual and collective, before it is too late. The alternative is to continue sliding downhill until we
35. have a country that looks like a vast municipal rubbish tip. We may well be at the tipping point. Yet we know that people respond to their environment. If things around them are clean and tidy, people behave cleanly and tidily. If they are surrounded by squalor, they behave squalidly. No much of Britain looks pretty squalid. What will it look like in five years? (Source: m) Question 157: The writer says that it is a good time to see Britain before the trees have leaves because . A. Britain looks perfect B. you can see Britain at its dirtiest C. you can see how dirty Britain is now D. the grass has thickened on the verges Question 158: For the writer, the problem is that ___. A. rubbish is not cleared up B. rubbish last longer than it used to C. our society is increasingly mobile D. Britain is a tatty country Question 159: The word “alternative” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ___ _. A. freedom B. disruption C. change D. option Question 160: The word 'they in the last paragraph may refer to ___ _. A. people B. the environment C. much of Britain D. cleanliness Question 161: What is the tone of the passage? A. informative B. persuasive C. pessimistic D. frustrated ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019 – CÔ TRANG ANH – ĐỀ 13– TẬP 2 EXERCISE 26:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. Urban populations interact with their environment. Urban people change their environment through their consumption of Food, energy, water, and land. And in turn, the polluted urban environment affects the health and quality of life of the urban population. People who live in urban areas have very different consumption patterns than residents in rural areas. For example, urban populations consume much more food, energy, and durable goods than rural populations. In China during the 1970s, the urban populations consumed twice as much pork as the rural populations who were raising the pigs. With economic development, the difference in consumption declined as the rural populations ate better diets. But even a decade later, urban populations had 60 percent more pork in their diets than rural populations. The increasing consumption of meat is a sign of growing affluence in Beijing; in India where many urban residents are vegetarians, greater prosperity is seen in higher consumption of milk. Urban populations not only consume more food, but they also consume more durable goods, In the early 1990s, Chinese households in urban areas were two times more likely to have a TV, eight times more likely to have a washing machine, and 25 times more likely to have a refrigerator than rural households. This increased consumption is a function of urban labor
36. markets, wages, and household structure. Urban consumption of energy helps create heat islands that can change local weather patterns and weather downwind from the heat islands. The heat island phenomenon is created because cities radiate heat back into the atmosphere at rate 15 percent to 30 percent less than rural areas. The combination of the increased energy consumption and difference in albedo (radiation) means that cities are warmer than rural areas (0.6 to 1.3 C), And these heat islands become traps for atmospheric pollutants. Cloudiness and fog occur with greater frequency. Precipitation is 5 percent to 10 percent higher in cities; thunderstorms and hailstorms are much more frequent, but snow days in cities are less common. Urbanization also affects the broader regional environments. Regions downwind from large industrial complexes also see increases in the amount of precipitation, air pollution, and the number of days with thunderstorms. Urban areas affect not only the weather patterns, but also the runoff patterns for water. Urban areas generally generate more rain, but they reduce the infiltration of water and lower the water tables. This means that runoff occurs more rapidly with greater peak flows. Flood volumes increase, as do floods and water pollution downstream. Many of the effects of urban areas on the environment are not necessarily linear. Bigger urban areas do not always create more environmental problems. And small urban areas can cause large problems. Much of what determines the extent of the environmental impacts is how the urban populations behave - their consumption and living patterns - not just how large they are. (Source: ) Question 162: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? A. The consumption of urban populations. B. The environmental effects of urbanization. C. The benefits and drawbacks of urbanization. D. The interaction of humans with environment. Question 163: Which of the following is TRUE about the food consumption of Chinese urban inhabitants? A. People in urban areas ate less than those in rural areas in the past B. Urban civilians prefer more milk in their diets than pork. C. People breeding the pigs in the past often had less pork in their diets than those in urban areas. D. The pork consumption in urban areas has experienced a downward trend. Question 164: The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ___ _. A. the urban residents' B. the rural populations' C. pigs' D. Chinese citizens' Question 165: According to paragraph 3, the following are mentioned as examples of durable goods, EXCEPT. A. televisions B. washing machines C. fridges D. generators Question 166: What does the word "Precipitation" in paragraph 4 mean?