Đề khảo sát chất lượng ôn thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh - Mã đề 204 - Năm học 2019-2020 - Đỗ Bình (Kèm đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề khảo sát chất lượng ôn thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh - Mã đề 204 - Năm học 2019-2020 - Đỗ Bình (Kèm đáp án)

1. SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ KSCL ÔN THI THPT QG NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN BÀI THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 204 (Đề thi gồm: 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Họ và tên thí sinh: . SBD: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 01. A. contractual B. significant C. Asian D. demanding Question 02. A. majority B. minority C. partnership D. enjoyable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 03. My father has a mechanic to repair his motorbike monthly. A. My father has B. a C. to repair D. monthly Question 04. Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region. A. Weather B. geography C. type D. used Question 05. There always is one wise woman who is both feared and respected by her people. A. always B. wise C. who is D. by her people Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 06. The class discussion was short. ___, we gained some new knowledge from it. A. However B. Moreover C. Although D. Therefore Question 07. Do you know exactly___ number of Siberian tigers in China? A. a B. an C. the D. 0 (zero article) Question 08. Get going! All the students were___ around, waiting until the last minute to go into the building A. dwelling B. lingering C. staggering D. running Question 09. 'I'm very___ to you for putting in so much hard work,' the boss said. A. thanking B. grateful C. considerate D. careful Question 10. He sat in a soft armchair and watched the world___. A. go by B. pass on C. walk along D. fly past Question 11. If it hadn’t been for the hint that the professor___, nobody would have found out the correct answer. A. dropped B. cast C. threw D. flung Question 12. The international conference of the Craniological Association has been___ in Cairo to discuss the revolutionary discovery of Doctor Gonzales from Mexico. A. deployed B. collected C. mobilized D. summoned Question 13. His parents have always wanted Philip to set a good___ to his younger brothers both at school and at home. A. form B. model C. pattern D. guidance Question 14. The professor’s___ theory is that singing preceded speech. A. fancied B. fond C. pet D. preferable Question 15. Social work suits her___ to the ground. A. for B. down C. out D. round Question 16. He spent his entire life___ round the world, never settling down anywhere. A. roaming B. scattering C. scrambling D. transporting Question 17. You are under no obligation to help as assistance is purely___. A. voluntary B. free C. charitable D. donated Question 18. I’m afraid you may find the truth somewhat___. A. inedible B. unpalatable C. indigestible D. unmanageable Question 19. She’s very___. She can be relied on to do her job properly. A. efficient B. cautious C. serious D. conservative Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. Andy: ‘Where can I get a cup of coffee?’ Murray: ‘___’. A. No sugar, please. B. I’d like coffee. By Đỗ Bình – THPT Liễn Sơn, Lập Thạch, Vĩnh Phúc – Trang 1/4
2. C. There’s a cafeteria downstairs. D. I’m thirsty. Question 21. Novak: ‘Could you tell me how to get to the post office?’ Ferrer: ‘___’. A. Excuse me. Is it easy to get there? B. Yes, I could. C. It’s at the end of this street, opposite the church. D. Sorry, it’s not very far Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. Many people enrich themselves by taking educational classes. A. damage B. improve C. help D. research Question 23. His business specialized in manufacturing vacuum cleaners. A. selling B. buying C. making D. fixing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston. A. uncomfortable B. warm C. lazy D. dirty Question 25. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week. A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. “That’s a lovely new dress, Jane,” said her mother. A. Jane’s mother said that she liked her lovely dress. B. Jane’s mother wanted to buy a lovely new dress. C. Jane’s mother complimented her on the lovely new dress. D. Jane’s mother told her to buy that lovely new dress. Question 27. We have run out of the items you want. A. We have to run out to buy the items you want. B. The items you want are out of our shop. C. For the items you want, we must run out. D. The items you want have been out of stock. Question 28. Be sure to get me some newspapers. A. I’m not sure about some newspapers. B. I certainly will get you some newspapers. C. Surely I’m going to get some newspapers. D. Remember to get me some newspapers. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. You should listen to the radio. You can be kept informed about current affairs. A. Only by listening to the radio you can keep yourself informed current affairs. B. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs. C. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio. D. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs. Question 30. You didn’t listen to me in the first place. You are in trouble right now. A. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in trouble right now. B. Had you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in trouble right now. C. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in trouble right now. D. Were you to listen to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in trouble right now. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. If you are an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol of our wasteful, throw-away society. But there seems little doubt it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (31)___ even environmental ones. It's not really the plastic themselves that are the environmental evil - it's the way society chooses to use and abuse them. Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal-non- renewable natural (32)___. We import well over three millions tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high (33)___ of our annual consumption is in the form of packaging, and this constitutes about 7% by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling (34)___ is growing fast. By Đỗ Bình – THPT Liễn Sơn, Lập Thạch, Vĩnh Phúc – Trang 2/4
3. The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich - they have a higher calorific value than coal and one (35)___ of "recovery" strongly favoured by the plastic manufacturers is the conversion of waste plastic into a fuel. Question 31. A. savings B. pleasures C. benefits D. profits Question 32. A. processes B. resources C. products D. fuels Question 33. A. amount B. proportion C. portion D. rate Question 34. A. industry B. manufacture C. plant D. factory Question 35. A. medium B. method C. measure D. mechanism Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The hard, rigid plates that form the outermost portion of the Earth are about 100 kilometers thick. These plates include both the Earth's crust and the upper mantle. The rocks of the crust are composed mostly of minerals with light elements, like aluminum and sodium, while the mantle contains some heavier elements, like iron and magnesium. Together, the crust and upper mantle that form the surface plates are called the lithosphere. This rigid layer floats on the denser material of the lower mantle the way a wooden raft floats on a pond. The plates are supported by a weak, plastic layer of the lower mantle called the asthenosphere. Also like a raft on a pond, the lithospheric plates are carried along by slow currents in this more fluid layer beneath them. With an understanding of plate tectonics, geologists have put together a new history for the Earth's surface. About 200 million years ago, the plates at the Earth's surface formed a “supercontinent” called Pangaea. When this supercontinent started to tear apart because of plate movement, Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses with a newly formed sea that grew between the land areas as the depression filled with water. The southern one - which included the modern continents of South America, Africa, Australia, and Antarctica - is called Gondwanaland. The northern one - with North America, Europe, and Asia - is called Laurasia. North America tore away from Europe about 180 million years ago, forming the northern Atlantic Ocean. Some of the lithospheric plates carry ocean floor and others carry land masses or a combination of the two types. The movement of the lithospheric plates is responsible for earthquakes, volcanoes, and the Earth's largest mountain ranges. Current understanding of the interaction between different plates explains why these occur where they do. For example, the edge of the Pacific Ocean has been called the “Ring of Fire” because so many volcanic eruptions and earthquakes happen there. Before the 1960's, geologists could not explain why active volcanoes and strong earthquakes were concentrated in that region. The theory of plate tectonics gave them an answer. Question 36. With which of the following topics is the passage mainly concerned? A. The contributions of the theory of plate tectonics to geological knowledge B. The mineral composition of the Earth's crust C. The location of the Earth's major plates D. The methods used by scientists to measure plate movement Question 37. According to the passage, the lithospheric plates are given support by the___. A. upper mantle B. ocean floor C. crust D. asthenosphere Question 38. The author compares the relationship between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere to which of the following? A. Lava flowing from a volcano B. A boat floating on the water C. A fish swimming in a pond D. The erosion of rocks by running water Question 39. The word “one” in the passage refers to___. A. movements B. masses C. sea D. depression Question 40. According to the passage, the northern Atlantic Ocean was formed when___. A. Pangaea was created B. plate movement ceased C. Gondwanaland collided with Pangaea D. parts of Laurasia separated from each other Question 41. Which of the following can be inferred about the theory of plate tectonics? A. It is no longer of great interest to geologists. B. It was first proposed in the 1960's. C. It fails to explain why earthquakes occur. D. It refutes the theory of the existence of a supercontinent. Question 42. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses___. By Đỗ Bình – THPT Liễn Sơn, Lập Thạch, Vĩnh Phúc – Trang 3/4
4. A. why certain geological events happen where they do B. how geological occurrences have changed over the years C. the most unusual geological developments in the Earth's history D. the latest innovations in geological measurement Question 43. In the passage, the word “concentrated” is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. allowed B. clustered C. exploded D. strengthened Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 44. A. benefit B. sentence C. get D. bed Question 45. A. fats B. dates C. dads D. states Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nation's “urban” from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants. Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of “urban” to take account of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA). Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general economic and social purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area included the county in which the central city is located, and adjacent counties that are found to be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970, about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities. While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969 there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of terms came into use: “metropolitan regions,” “polynucleated population groups”, “conurbations,” “metropolitan clusters,” “megalopolises,” and so on. Question 46. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. How cities in the United States began and developed B. Solutions to overcrowding in cities C. The changing definition of an urban area D. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census Question 47. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban in___. A. 1870 B. 1900 C. 1950 D. 1970 Question 48. Which of the following is NOT true of an SMSA? A. It has a population of at least 50,000 B. It can include a city's outlying regions. C. It can include unincorporated regions. D. It consists of at least two cities. Question 49. The Census Bureau first used the term “SMSA” in___. A. 1900 B. 1950 C. 1969 D. 1970 Question 50. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as urban? A. 2,500 B. 8,000 C. 15,000 D. 50,000 ___HẾT___ By Đỗ Bình – THPT Liễn Sơn, Lập Thạch, Vĩnh Phúc – Trang 4/4