Đề thi thử lần 2 kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2019 - Mã đề 001 - Trường THPT Gia Lộc (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề thi thử lần 2 kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2019 - Mã đề 001 - Trường THPT Gia Lộc (Có đáp án)

1. SỞ GD-ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 2 KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019 TRƯỜNG THPT GIA LỘC ___ Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) (Đề thi có 6 trang; 50 câu) Họ, tên thí sinh: Mã đề thi 001 Số báo danh: Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. U23 Thailand’s 0-4 defeat against U23 Vietnam has raised many comments that Thai team did not work very hard. (1) ___ , Thai media has a completely different view of this failure. Specifically, Thairath newspaper (2) ___ that Thai football should accept the truth of being beaten by Vietnam. It wrote: "In AFC U23 Championship 2020 Qualifiers, U23 Thailand U23 accepted 0-4 defeat against U23 Vietnam, which is a very embarrassing thing, because Thailand’s (3) is Vietnam. If you watched the game, you could see the outstanding players on the pitch were definitely not Thai.It was Nguyen Quang Hai, U23 Vietnam’s number 1 star. He once again (4) his potential talent not only in Southeast Asia but also in all Asia. This failure was also a sign of many things. First, Thai football is lacking in development, whereas Vietnam has made great (5) In addition, Thailand is also inferior to Vietnam on the FIFA table. Thailand has not achieved the same achievements as Vietnam did at AFF Suzuki Cup or Asian Cup. Question 1. A. Moreover B. However C. Although D. Therefore Question 2. A. informed B. told C. stated D. spoke Question 3. A. opponent B. defender C. friend D. partner Question 4. A. concealed B. distort C. demonstrated D. opposed Question 5. A. halt B. hindrance C. interference D. progress Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 6. A. biology B. historical C. ecosystem D. security Question 7. A. appreciate B. experience C. embarrassing D. situation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 8. A. slicedB. relookedC. photographedD. filled Question 9. A. divisibleB. designC. diseaseD.decision Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 10. I‟m sure that the answer to my letter ___ by next Friday morning. A. will have come B. has come C. is coming D. was coming Question 11. - She was ___ out of 115 applicants for the position of Managing Director. A. short – changed B. short - listed C. short – sighted D. short - handed Question 12. If she can make up such stories, she is certainly a very girl. A. imaginaryB. imaginableC. imaginativeD. imagining Question 13. He got an excellent grade in his examination ___ the fact that he had not worked particularly hard . A. on account of B. because of C. in spite of D. thanks to Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 1/6
2. Question 14. The last person ___ will have to turn off the lights. A. have left B. left C. leaving D. to leave Question 15. Unless you return the money immediately, you will be ___ with theft and getting into serious trouble. A. accused B. charged C. blamed D. pointed Question 16. Returning to my room, ___. A. my watch was missing B. I found my watch disappeared C. I found my watch missing D. the watch was missed Question 17. I would rather you ___ the office phone for personal purpose. A. shouldn’t have used B. shouldn’t use C. not to use D. didn’t use Question 18. The police detective had been in ___ of the suspect for two days. A. employment B. pursuit C. expedition D. chase Question 19. In ___ most social situations, ___ informality is appreciated. A. Ø / Ø B. the / an C. a / the D. the / a Question 20. Our hotel, ___ is converted from a 17th century manor house, is very comfortable. A. whichB. thatC. whereD. when Question 21. In the past, most women just stayed home to look after their husbands and children. Therefore, they had to financially .their husbands. A. Live byB. save upC. keep onD. depend on Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 22: Maria: “Can I borrow your umbrella for a day?” Ann: “___” A. With pleasure B. Ready C. Welcome D. Yes, I can Question 23: : "My mother is ill in hospital." " " A. I don't think so B. Oh, she is unlucky C. No problem D. I'm sorry to hear that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needscorrection in each of the following questions. Question 24. Rudolph Nureyev has become one of the greatest dancer the ballet world has ever known. A B C D Question 25. To be successful in an interview, you should control the feeling of pressure and making a A B C good impression on the interviewer. D Question 26. No matter how young are you, you should take responsibility to do some housework A B C to help your parents. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 27. . If we continue to deplete the Earth's natural resources, we will cause serious damage to the environment. A. explode B. conserve C. exhaust D. dig into Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 2/6
3. Question 28 Julia finally made a clean breast of it and admitted that she had stolen the money. A. made up B. deceived C. told the truth of D. denied Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 29. She stays incredibly focused and is never distracted by others. A. disturbed B. confused C. bewildered D. concentrated Question 30. I think it’s time we did away with the obsolete policies. A. kept B. got away with C. wiped out D. overlooked Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37. Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gamed during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville slimed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman. With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today. Question 31. The main subject of the passage is ___ . A. Melville's travels B. Melville's personal background C. the popularity of Melville's novels D. Moby Dick Question 32. According to the passage, Melville's early novels were ___ . A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional C. all about his work on whaling ship D. based on his travel experience Question 33: The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because ___ . A. he had unofficially left his ship. B. he was on leave while his ship was in port. C. he had finished his term of duty. D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti. Question 34. How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity? A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no effect on his popularity C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong as ever. Question 35. According to the passage, Moby Dick is ___ A. a romantic adventure B. a single-faceted work C. a short story about a whale D. symbolic of humanity fighting the environment Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 3/6
4. Question 36: The word "metamorphosis" is closest in meaning to ___ A. change B. circle C. mysticism D. descent Question 37: The passage would most likely he assigned reading in a course on ___ . A. nineteenth-century novels B. American history C. oceanography D. modern American literature Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45. SMART ENERGY 1. The next few decades will see great changes in the way energy is supplied and used. In some major oil producing nations, 'peak oil' has already been reached, and there are increasing fears of global warming. Consequently, many countries are focusing on the switch to a low carbon economy. This transition will lead to major changes in the supply and use of electricity. Firstly, there will be an increase in overall demand, as consumers switch from oil and gas to electricity to power their homes and vehicles. Secondly, there will be an increase in power generation, not only in terms of how much is generated, but also how it is generated, as there is growing electricity generation from renewable sources. To meet these challenges, countries are investing in Smart Grid technology. This system aims to provide the electricity industry with a better understanding of power generation and demand, and to use this information to create a more efficient power network. 2. Smart Grid technology basically involves the application of a computer system to the electricity network. The computer system can be used to collect information about supply and demand and improve engineer's ability to manage the system. With better information about electricity demand, the network will be able to increase the amount of electricity delivered per unit generated, leading to potential reductions in fuel needs and carbon emissions. Moreover, the computer system will assist in reducing operational and maintenance costs. 3. Smart Grid technology offers benefits to the consumer too. They will be able to collect real-time information on their energy use for each appliance. Varying tariffs throughout the day will give customers the incentive to use appliances at times when supply greatly exceeds demand, leading to great reductions in bills. For example, they may use their washing machines at night. Smart meters can also be connected to the internet or telephone system, allowing customers to switch appliances on or off remotely. Furthermore, if houses are fitted with the apparatus to generate their own power, appliances can be set to run directly from the on-site power source, and any excess can be sold to the grid. 4. With these changes comes a range of challenges. The first involves managing the supply and demand. Sources of renewable energy, such as wind, wave and solar, are notoriously unpredictable, and nuclear power, which is also set to increase as nations switch to alternative energy sources, is inflexible. With oil and gas, it is relatively simple to increase the supply of energy to match the increasing demand during peak times of the day or year. With the sources of renewable energy, this is far more difficult, and may lead to blackouts or system collapse. Potential solutions include investigating new and efficient ways to store energy and encouraging consumers to use electricity at off-peak times. 5. A second problem is the fact that many renewable power generation sources are located in remote areas, such as windy uplands and coastal regions, where there is currently a lack of electrical infrastructure. New infrastructures therefore must be built. Thankfully, with improved smart technology, this can be done more efficiently by reducing the reinforcement or construction costs. 6. Although Smart Technology is still in its infancy, pilot schemes to promote and test it have already started. Consumers are currently testing the new smart meters which can be used in their homes to manage electricity use. There are also a number of demonstrations being planned to show Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 4/6
5. how the smart technology could practically work, and trials are in place to test the new electrical infrastructure. It is likely that technology will be added in 'layers', starting with 'quick win' methods which will provide initial carbon savings, to be followed by more advanced systems at a later date. Cities are prime candidates for investment into smart energy, due to the high population density and high energy use. It is here where Smart Technology is likely to be promoted first, utilising a range of sustainable power sources, transport solutions and an infrastructure for charging electrically powered vehicles. The infrastructure is already changing fast. By the year 2050, changes in the energy supply will have transformed our homes, our roads and our behaviour. Question 38. According to paragraph 1, what has happened in some oil producing countries? A. They are unwilling to sell their oil any more. B. They are not producing as much oil as they used to. C. The supply of oil is unpredictable. D. Global warming is more severe here than in other countries. Question 39. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Smart Grid technology to consumers? A. It can reduce their electricity bills. B. It can tell them how much energy each appliance is using. C. It can allow them to turn appliances on and off when they are not at home. D. It can reduce the amount of energy needed to power appliances. Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what is the problem with using renewable sources of power? A. They do not provide much energy. B. They may cause blackouts or system collapse. C. They lead to pollution and global warming. D. They can't be used at off-peak times. Question 41. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about cities in the future? A. Fewer people will be living in cities in the future than nowadays. B. People in cities will be using vehicles powered by electricity. C. All buildings will generate their own electricity. D. Smart Grid technology will only be available in cities. Question 42. The word 'remote' in paragraph 5 could be best replace by: A. isolated B. crowded C. attractive D. alone Question 43. What is the main idea of the final paragraph? (paragraph 6) A. To describe who will benefit from Smart Grid technology first. B. To outline the advantages of Smart Grid technology. C. To summarize the main ideas in the previous paragraphs. D. To describe how, where and when Smart Technology will be introduced. Question 44. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about the introduction of Smart Grid Technology? A. The technologies which produce most benefits will be introduced first. B. The cheapest technologies will be introduced first. C. The technologies which are most difficult to put into place will be introduced first. D. Technologically advanced systems will be introduced first. Question 45. Which of the aspects below is NOT answered in the passage? A. The ways Smart Grid technology will affect the way consumers use energy. Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 5/6
6. B. The problems which will have to be overcome in switching to Smart Grid Technology. C. The amount of money has been spent researching Smart Grid technology. D. The reasons why Smart Grid technology will be needed in the future. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. It was my grandfather’s donation that helped the church’s central tower to be restored. A. Because my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was restored. B. Inspite of my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was not restored. C. Thanks to my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was restored. D. Although my grand father donated a lot of money to the church, its central tower was not restored. Question 47: “Why I haven’t thought of this before,” Dung said to himself A. Dung suggested himself not thinking of that before. B. Dung advised himself not to have thought of that before. C. Dung wondered why he hadn’t thought of that before. D. Dung said that why he hadn’t thought that before. Question 48. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is money. A.This job makes money worthwhile. B. If there is no money, this job is not worthwhile. C. Were it not for money, the job wouldn't be worthwhile. D. If only this job were worthwhile for money. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I tried to call you a few minutes ago and got a busy signal. How lucky! You called me A. I was not lucky enough to call you a few minutes ago because I was busy. B. The busy signal prevented me from calling you a few minutes ago, so please call me back. C. You luckily called me, so I didn’t have to call you for a few minutes because the signal was busy. D. Luckily, you called me in time, because I failed to call you a few minutes ago. Question 50: The unemployment rate is high. The crime rate is usually also high. A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. ___ THE END ___ Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 6/6
7. KEYS Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. U23 Thailand’s 0-4 defeat against U23 Vietnam has raised many comments that Thai team did not work very hard. (1) ___ , Thai media has a completely different view of this failure. Specifically, Thairath newspaper (2) ___ that Thai football should accept the truth of being beaten by Vietnam. It wrote: "In AFC U23 Championship 2020 Qualifiers, U23 Thailand U23 accepted 0-4 defeat against U23 Vietnam, which is a very embarrassing thing, because Thailand’s (3) is Vietnam. If you watched the game, you could see the outstanding players on the pitch were definitely not Thai.It was Nguyen Quang Hai, U23 Vietnam’s number 1 star. He once again (4) his potential talent not only in Southeast Asia but also in all Asia. This failure was also a sign of many things. First, Thai football is lacking in development, whereas Vietnam has made great (5) In addition, Thailand is also inferior to Vietnam on the FIFA table. Thailand has not achieved the same achievements as Vietnam did at AFF Suzuki Cup or Asian Cup. Question 1. A. Moreover B. However C. Although D. Therefore Question 2. A. informed B. told C. stated D. spoke Question 3. A. opponent B. defender C. friend D. partner Question 4. A. concealed B. distort C. demonstrated D. opposed Question 5. A. halt B. hindrance C. interference D. progress Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 6. A. biology B. historical C. ecosystem D. security Question 7. A. appreciate B. experience C. embarrassing D. situation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 8. A. slicedB. relookedC. photographedD. filled Question 9. A. divisibleB. designC. diseaseD.decision Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 10. I‟m sure that the answer to my letter ___ by next Friday morning. A. will have come B. has come C. is coming D. was coming Question 11. - She was ___ out of 115 applicants for the position of Managing Director. A. short – changed B. short - listed C. short – sighted D. short - handed Question 12. If she can make up such stories, she is certainly a very girl. A. imaginaryB. imaginableC. imaginativeD. imagining Question 13. He got an excellent grade in his examination ___ the fact that he had not worked particularly hard . A. on account of B. because of C. in spite of D. thanks to Question 14. The last person ___ will have to turn off the lights. A. have left B. left C. leaving D. to leave Question 15. Unless you return the money immediately, you will be ___ with theft and getting into serious trouble. A. accused B. charged C. blamed D. pointed Question 16. Returning to my room, ___. Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 7/6
8. A. my watch was missing B. I found my watch disappeared C. I found my watch missing D. the watch was missed Question 17. I would rather you ___ the office phone for personal purpose. A. shouldn’t have used B. shouldn’t use C. not to use D. didn’t use Question 18. The police detective had been in ___ of the suspect for two days. A. employment B. pursuit C. expedition D. chase Question 19. In ___ most social situations, ___ informality is appreciated. A. Ø / Ø B. the / an C. a / the D. the / a Question 20. Our hotel, ___ is converted from a 17th century manor house, is very comfortable. A. whichB. thatC. whereD. when Question 21. In the past, most women just stayed home to look after their husbands and children. Therefore, they had to financially .their husbands. A. Live byB. save upC. keep onD. depend on Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 22: Maria: “Can I borrow your umbrella for a day?” Ann: “___” A. With pleasure B. Ready C. Welcome D. Yes, I can Question 23: : "My mother is ill in hospital." " " A. I don't think so B. Oh, she is unlucky C. No problem D. I'm sorry to hear that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needscorrection in each of the following questions. Question 24. Rudolph Nureyev has become one of the greatest dancer the ballet world has ever known. A B C D Question 25. To be successful in an interview, you should control the feeling of pressure and making a A B C good impression on the interviewer. D Question 26. No matter how young are you, you should take responsibility to do some housework A BC to help your parents. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 27. . If we continue to deplete the Earth's natural resources, we will cause serious damage to the environment. A. explode B. conserve C. exhaust D. dig into Question 28 Julia finally made a clean breast of it and admitted that she had stolen the money. A. made up B. deceived C. told the truth of D. denied Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 29. She stays incredibly focused and is never distracted by others. A. disturbed B. confused C. bewildered D. concentrated Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 8/6
9. Question 30. I think it’s time we did away with the obsolete policies. A. kept B. got away with C. wiped out D. overlooked Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37. Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gamed during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville slimed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman. With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today. Question 31. The main subject of the passage is ___ . A. Melville's travels B. Melville's personal background C. the popularity of Melville's novels D. Moby Dick Question 32. According to the passage, Melville's early novels were ___ . A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional C. all about his work on whaling ship D. based on his travel experience Question 33: The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because ___ . A. he had unofficially left his ship. B. he was on leave while his ship was in port. C. he had finished his term of duty. D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti. Question 34. How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity? A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no effect on his popularity C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong as ever. Question 35. According to the passage, Moby Dick is ___ A. a romantic adventure B. a single-faceted work C. a short story about a whale D. symbolic of humanity fighting the environment Question 36: The word "metamorphosis" is closest in meaning to ___ A. change B. circle C. mysticism D. descent Question 37: The passage would most likely he assigned reading in a course on ___ . A. nineteenth-century novels B. American history C. oceanography D. modern American literature Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 9/6
10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45. SMART ENERGY 1. The next few decades will see great changes in the way energy is supplied and used. In some major oil producing nations, 'peak oil' has already been reached, and there are increasing fears of global warming. Consequently, many countries are focusing on the switch to a low carbon economy. This transition will lead to major changes in the supply and use of electricity. Firstly, there will be an increase in overall demand, as consumers switch from oil and gas to electricity to power their homes and vehicles. Secondly, there will be an increase in power generation, not only in terms of how much is generated, but also how it is generated, as there is growing electricity generation from renewable sources. To meet these challenges, countries are investing in Smart Grid technology. This system aims to provide the electricity industry with a better understanding of power generation and demand, and to use this information to create a more efficient power network. 2. Smart Grid technology basically involves the application of a computer system to the electricity network. The computer system can be used to collect information about supply and demand and improve engineer's ability to manage the system. With better information about electricity demand, the network will be able to increase the amount of electricity delivered per unit generated, leading to potential reductions in fuel needs and carbon emissions. Moreover, the computer system will assist in reducing operational and maintenance costs. 3. Smart Grid technology offers benefits to the consumer too. They will be able to collect real-time information on their energy use for each appliance. Varying tariffs throughout the day will give customers the incentive to use appliances at times when supply greatly exceeds demand, leading to great reductions in bills. For example, they may use their washing machines at night. Smart meters can also be connected to the internet or telephone system, allowing customers to switch appliances on or off remotely. Furthermore, if houses are fitted with the apparatus to generate their own power, appliances can be set to run directly from the on-site power source, and any excess can be sold to the grid. 4. With these changes comes a range of challenges. The first involves managing the supply and demand. Sources of renewable energy, such as wind, wave and solar, are notoriously unpredictable, and nuclear power, which is also set to increase as nations switch to alternative energy sources, is inflexible. With oil and gas, it is relatively simple to increase the supply of energy to match the increasing demand during peak times of the day or year. With the sources of renewable energy, this is far more difficult, and may lead to blackouts or system collapse. Potential solutions include investigating new and efficient ways to store energy and encouraging consumers to use electricity at off-peak times. 5. A second problem is the fact that many renewable power generation sources are located in remote areas, such as windy uplands and coastal regions, where there is currently a lack of electrical infrastructure. New infrastructures therefore must be built. Thankfully, with improved smart technology, this can be done more efficiently by reducing the reinforcement or construction costs. 6. Although Smart Technology is still in its infancy, pilot schemes to promote and test it have already started. Consumers are currently testing the new smart meters which can be used in their homes to manage electricity use. There are also a number of demonstrations being planned to show how the smart technology could practically work, and trials are in place to test the new electrical infrastructure. It is likely that technology will be added in 'layers', starting with 'quick win' methods which will provide initial carbon savings, to be followed by more advanced systems at a later date. Cities are prime candidates for investment into smart energy, due to the high population density and high energy use. It is here where Smart Technology is likely to be promoted first, utilising a range of Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 10/6
11. sustainable power sources, transport solutions and an infrastructure for charging electrically powered vehicles. The infrastructure is already changing fast. By the year 2050, changes in the energy supply will have transformed our homes, our roads and our behaviour. Question 38. According to paragraph 1, what has happened in some oil producing countries? A. They are unwilling to sell their oil any more. B. They are not producing as much oil as they used to. C. The supply of oil is unpredictable. D. Global warming is more severe here than in other countries. Question 39. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Smart Grid technology to consumers? A. It can reduce their electricity bills. B. It can tell them how much energy each appliance is using. C. It can allow them to turn appliances on and off when they are not at home. D. It can reduce the amount of energy needed to power appliances. Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what is the problem with using renewable sources of power? A. They do not provide much energy. B. They may cause blackouts or system collapse. C. They lead to pollution and global warming. D. They can't be used at off-peak times. Question 41. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about cities in the future? A. Fewer people will be living in cities in the future than nowadays. B. People in cities will be using vehicles powered by electricity. C. All buildings will generate their own electricity. D. Smart Grid technology will only be available in cities. Question 42. The word 'remote' in paragraph 5 could be best replace by: A. isolated B. crowded C. attractive D. alone Question 43. What is the main idea of the final paragraph? (paragraph 6) A. To describe who will benefit from Smart Grid technology first. B. To outline the advantages of Smart Grid technology. C. To summarize the main ideas in the previous paragraphs. D. To describe how, where and when Smart Technology will be introduced. Question 44. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about the introduction of Smart Grid Technology? A. The technologies which produce most benefits will be introduced first. B. The cheapest technologies will be introduced first. C. The technologies which are most difficult to put into place will be introduced first. D. Technologically advanced systems will be introduced first. Question 45. Which of the aspects below is NOT answered in the passage? A. The ways Smart Grid technology will affect the way consumers use energy. B. The problems which will have to be overcome in switching to Smart Grid Technology. C. The amount of money has been spent researching Smart Grid technology. D. The reasons why Smart Grid technology will be needed in the future. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 11/6
12. Question 46. It was my grandfather’s donation that helped the church’s central tower to be restored. A. Because my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was restored. B. Inspite of my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was not restored. C. Thanks to my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was restored. D. Although my grand father donated a lot of money to the church, its central tower was not restored. Question 47: “Why I haven’t thought of this before,” Dung said to himself A. Dung suggested himself not thinking of that before. B. Dung advised himself not to have thought of that before. C. Dung wondered why he hadn’t thought of that before. D. Dung said that why he hadn’t thought that before. Question 48. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is money. A.This job makes money worthwhile. B. If there is no money, this job is not worthwhile. C. Were it not for money, the job wouldn't be worthwhile. D. If only this job were worthwhile for money. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I tried to call you a few minutes ago and got a busy signal. How lucky! You called me A. I was not lucky enough to call you a few minutes ago because I was busy. B. The busy signal prevented me from calling you a few minutes ago, so please call me back. C. You luckily called me, so I didn’t have to call you for a few minutes because the signal was busy. D. Luckily, you called me in time, because I failed to call you a few minutes ago. Question 50: The unemployment rate is high. The crime rate is usually also high. A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. ___ THE END ___ Mã đề thi 001 - Trang 12/6