Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh - Đề số 21

Nội dung text: Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh - Đề số 21

1. TEST 21 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. category B. vacancy C. scary D. apply Question 2: A. admit B. provide C. decide D. require Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. secondary B. requirement C. admission D. certificate Question 4: A. forget B. offer C. relate D. impress Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 5: Physically inactive people are at risk of developing heart disease. A. passive B. active C. dynamic D. lively Question 6: Computers and telecommunication are bound to have a huge influence on various aspects of our life. A. equivalent B. diverse C. like D. similar Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 7: When he heard the news, Simon got on the next train to London. A. got away B. got of C. got off D. got in Question 8: No one knew precisely what would happen to human being in space. A. informally B. flexibly C. wrongly D. casually Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following exchanges. Question 9: ~ Laura: “What shall we do this evening?” ~ Annie: “___" A. I went out for dinner. B. Oh, that’s bad! C. No problem. D. Let’s go out for dinner. Question 10: ~ Jane: “Thank you very much for the lovely flowers.” ~ Susan: “___" A. You’re welcome.B. It was an excellent choice.C. Yeah, the flowers are nice.D. You like flowers, don’t you? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 11: He was the last one leaving the burning building in time. Question 12: If you work hard, you would be successful in anything you do. Question 13: Poverty in the United States is noticeably different from that in other country. Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 14: What are the entry___ at this university? A. required B. requirements C. require D. requirement Question 15: Damage to the building resulted___ an unusually high wind. A. at B. down C. on D. in Question 16: Cameron, ___ directed “The Titanic”, is one of the leading faces in Hollywood. A. whose B. who C. whom D. that Question 17: I want this test___ in ink. A. written B. to write C. write D. writing Question 18: The local clubs are___ every effort to interest more young people. A. doing B. taking C. making D. giving Question 19: It is high time Tom___ more active in class. A. was B. must be C. has been D. were Question 20: The wedding day was___ chosen by the parents of the groom. A. careless B. carefully C. carelessly D. careful Question 21: He found a watch when he___ in the street. A. was walking B. had been walking C. had walked D. walked Question 22: Neither the boy’s parents nor I___ satisfied with his progress. A. are B. has C. am D. have Question 23: I don't really get___ with my sister's husband. A. away B. on C. through D. in Question 24: Hung doesn’t take good care___ himself. A. in B. of C. about D. for Question 25: I can't think of any possible___ for his absence. A. exploration B. expedition C. explanation D. expectation Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 1
2. People used to know more or less how their children would live. Now things are changing so quickly that they don’t even know what their own lives will be like in a few years’ time. What follows is not science fiction. It is how experts see the future. You are daydreaming behind the steering wheel; is it too dangerous? No! That’s no problem because you have it on automatic pilot, and with its hi-tech computers and cameras, your car “knows” how to get home safe and sound. What is for lunch? In the old days you used to stop off to buy a hamburger or a pizza. Now you use your diagnostic machine to find out which foods your body needs. If your body needs more vegetables and less fat, your food-preparation machine makes you a salad. After lunch, you go down the hall to your home office. Here you have everything you need to do your work. Thanks to your information screen and your latest generation computer, you needn’t go to the office any more. The information screen shows an urgent message from a co-worker in Brazil. You can instantly send back a reply to him and go on to deal with other matters. Question 26: What does “its” in line 5 refer to? A. Your car. B. Your home. C. The future. D. The steering wheel. Question 27: Which of the following statement is true about life in the future? A. People will go to work as they do today. B. Hi-tech equipment will be out of the question. C. It will be dangerous to drive cars because they are too fast. D. People can have balanced diets for their meal. Question 28: According to the passage, what do people use a diagnostic machine for? A. To make food for them. B. To sell food for humans. C. To provide them with food. D. To find out which foods their body needs. Question 29: The word “urgent” in the last paragraph probably means___. A. expected B. pressing C. unnecessary D. hurry Question 30: Which of the following is NOT true about life in the future? A. Eating is a problem because food contains too much fat. B. There’s no need to concentrate much when people are driving. C. Contacts between people are almost instant. D. Getting information is a matter of just a few seconds. Question 31: What is “reply” CLOSEST in meaning to? A. answer B. request C. replay D. question Question 32: What is the main idea of the passage? A. What foods people will eat in the future. B. The role of the computer in future life. C. What life is like in the future. D. Life in the future will be the same as life at present. Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each o f the numbered blanks. Many American customs will surprise you; the same thing happens to us when we (33)___ another country. People from various cultures handle many small daily things differently. What a dull world it (34)___ be if this were not true! Some differences are minor, and people soon become accustomed to them. At (35)___ , for example, some foreign women may be startled at the idea of (36)___ their hair cut or styled by men. Visitors maybe amazed to see men wearing wigs. People may find the transitory quality of much American life odd, for example, one (37)___ rent art by the week or the entire furnishings of an apartment, from sofa and bed to the last spoon, on less than eight hours’ notice. “Package” living is part of today’s American scene. Question 33:A. arrive B. travel C. visit D. come Question 34:A. would B. can C. may D. will Question 35:A. least B. first C. all D. last Question 36:A. having B. giving C. showing D. taking Question 37:A. shall B. must C. should D. can Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost every part of the world except the northernmost and southernmost regions. One commonly known species is the honeybee, the only bee that produces honey and wax. Humans use the wax in making candles, lipsticks, and other products, and they use the honey as a food. While gathering the nectar and pollen with which they make honey, bees are simultaneously helping to fertilize the flowers on which they land. Many fruits and vegetables would not survive if bees did not carry the pollen from blossom to blossom. Bees live in a structured environment and social structure within a hive, which is a nest with storage space for the honey. The different types of bees each perform a unique function. The worker bee carries nectar to the hive in a special stomach called a honey stomach, other workers make beeswax and shape it into a honeycomb, which is a waterproof mass of six-sided compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in completed cells. As the workers build more cells, the queen lays more eggs. 2
3. All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the queen. The male honeybees are called drones; they do no work and cannot sting. They are developed from unfertilized eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a queen. The queen must be fertilized in order to lay worker eggs. During the season, when less honey is available and the drones is of no further use, the workers block the drones from eating the honey so that they will starve to death. Question 38: Which of the following is the best title for this reading? A. The Honey Bee - Its Characteristics and Usefulness B. Making Honey C. The Many Species of Bees D. The Useless Drone Question 39: According to the passage, the drone___. A. comes from eggs fertilized by other drones B. collects less honey than workers C. mates with the queen and has no other purpose D. can be male or female Question 40: The author implies that___. A. bees are unnecessary in the food chain B. drones are completely dispensable C. drones are never females D. the queen can be a worker Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that beeswax is___. A. absorbent B. complex in structure C. pliable D. sweet Question 42: The word “species” in the first sentence probably means___. A. enemies B. mates C. killers D. varieties Question 43: It is stated in paragraph 2 that a hive is___. A. a storage space B. a nest C. a type of bee D. a type of honey Question 44: The word “They” in the last paragraph refers to___. A. queens B. workers C. honeybees D. drones Question 45: According to the passage, honey is carried to the hive in a honey stomach by the___. A. workers B. males C. drones D. queens Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 46: You must read the instructions. You won’t know how to use this machine without reading them. A. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine. B. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions. C. Unless you read the instructions, you won’t know how to use this machine. D. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won’t be known. Question 47: The book is very interesting. My brother bought it yesterday. A. The book which is very interesting my brother bought yesterday. B. The book which my brother bought it yesterday is very interesting. C. The book my brother bought yesterday is not interesting. D. The book which my brother bought yesterday is very interesting. Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 48: “Are you waiting for your exam result?” she said A. She asked me if I was waiting for my exam result. B. She asked me was I waiting for my exam result. C. She asked me whether was I waiting for the exam result. D. She asked me whether I was waiting for your exam. Question 49: They arrived late, so they didn’t have good seats. A. However late they arrived, they had very good seats. B. The late arrivers still had good seats. C. Unless they arrived early, they wouldn’t have good seats. D. If they had arrived earlier, they might have got good seats. Question 50: He couldn’t come to the conference because he was seriously ill. A. Although he was ill, he came to the conference. B. His illness was very serious that he couldn’t come to the conference. C. Because of his serious illness, he couldn’t come to the conference. D. He couldn’t come to the conference, so he became seriously ill. TESST 22 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. laughed B. sacrificed C. cooked D. explained Question 2: A. airports B. ways C. questions D. pictures 3
4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. verbal B. signal C. common D. attract Question 4: A. historian B. certificate C. academic D. curriculum Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. Because the highway system was built 40 years ago , most of the roads now need to repair. Question 6. Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a teacher wants to get someone’s attention in class. Question 7. If a student takes a course on Computer Science, it will take him four years doing the course. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: Many applicants find a job interview___ if they are not well-prepared for it. A. impressive B. stressful C. threatening D. time-consuming Question 9: He managed to win the race___ hurting his foot before the race. A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of Question 10: Hardly___ when the argument began. A. when he arrived B. he had arrived C. than he arrived D. had he arrived Question 11: Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of___ devices. A. environment-friendly B. time-consuming C. labor-saving D. pollution-free Question 12: By the end of the 21st century, scientists___ a cure for the common cold. A. will find B. will have found C. will be finding D. will have been finding Question 13: Last Sunday was___ that we took a drive in the country. A. so beautiful day B. such a beautiful day C. so a beautiful day D. such beautiful day Question 14: Widespread forest destruction___ in this particular area. A. must have seen B. ought to see C. could have seen D. can be seen Question 15: The greater the demand, ___ the price. A. the highest B. the high C. higher D. the higher Question 16: After twenty years collecting stamps, Mike___ interested in them. A. is not longer B. no longer C. no longer is D. is no longer Question 17: He still hasn’t really___ the death of his mother. A. recovered B. got over C. cured D. treated Question 18: He asked me___. A. since when I’m waiting B. how long I have been waiting C. how long I had been waitingD. since when I waited Question 19: ___ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat. A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: - Charles: “ Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - Lisa: “___” A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that. B. Not at all. Go ahead. C. Not so bad. And you ? D. That would be nice. Question 21: - John: “What kind of job would you like? - Tim: “___.“ A. All of them are B. I heard it was very good C. Anything to do with computers D. Anytime after next week Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s). Question 22: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone. A. terrified B. troubled C. happy D. disappointed Question 23: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate. A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s). Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do. A. interested B. dissatisfied C. excited D. shocked Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly. A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb. A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship. B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb. C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb. D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb. 4
5. Question 27: Neil always forgets his wife’s birthday. A. At no time Neil remembers his wife’s birthday. B. Neil never remembers his wife’s birthday. C. Neil sometimes remembers his wife’s birthday. D. Neil remembers his wife’s birthday all the time. Question 28: If you practise harder you will have better results. A. The harder you practise, the best results you’ll have.B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you’ll have. C.The hardest you practise, the most results you will have.D. The harder you practise, the better results you will have. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient. A. A waitress, who served us , was very impolite and impatient. B. A waitress which served us., was very impolite and impatient. C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient. D. A waitress whom served us , was very impolite and impatient. Question 30: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured. A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured. B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured. C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured. D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured. Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (31)___ class size is twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (32)___ teaching and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (33)___ in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (34)___ at the most suitable level. The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (35)___ of situations at the advanced knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-taking from books and lectures. Question 31: A. maximum B. minimum C. small D. large Question 32: A. in B. of C. on D. for Question 33: A. test B. exam C. course D. lesson Question 34: A. form B. class C. grade D. course Question 35: A. variety B. amount C. number D. lot Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion off 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy. Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world. Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage? A. The number of non-native users of English. B. The French influence on the English language. C. The expansion of English as an international language. D. The use of English for science and technology. Question 37. In the first paragraph, the word "emerged" is closest in meaning to A. appeared B. hailed C. frequented D. engaged Question 38. In the first paragraph, the word "elements" is closest in meaning to A. declaration B. features C. curiosities D. customs 5
6. Question 39. Approximately, ___ English begin to be used beyond England? A. In 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600 Question 40. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world___. A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries D. colonization Question 41. In the second paragraph, the word "stored" is closest in meaning to___. A. bought B. saved C. spent D. valued Question 42. According to the passage, approximately ___ non-native users of English are there in the world today? A. a quarter million B. half a million C. 350 million D. 700 million Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. Question 43. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work___. A. as a researcher B. at college C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer Question 44. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University? A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history Question 45. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45 Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind ___. A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies Question 47. Which was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us? A. printed matter B. talks with experts C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists Question 48. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to___. A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible Question 49. The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to___. A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive Question 50. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee? A. To provide an example of government propaganda. B. To support Carson’s ideas. C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment. D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims. TEST 23 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. mineral B. mitigate C. minimize D. minor Question 02: A. distant B. resistant C. tangible D. essential Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. atmosphere B. exhausted C. variety D. adventure Question 04: A. beneficial B. renewable C. advantageous D. influential Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 05: She had never seen such discourtesy towards the director as it happened in the meeting last week. 6
7. A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement Question 06: They conducted a campaign to promote people’s awareness of environmental problems. A. encourage B. publicize C. hinder D. strengthen Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) of the questions. Question 07: That restaurant tempts many customers because of its affordable price and good food. A. attracts B. frees C. refuses D. offers Question 08: I’ll back up your ideas if they don’t believe you. A. support B. rebel C. admire D. protect Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 09: Marry is talking to Linda over the phone. Mary: “Thank you for helping me prepare for the party.” Linda: “___”. A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world C. Never mention me. D. Of course not Question 10: Tom is in Ho Chi Minh City and asks a passer-by the way to the railway station. - Tom: “Can you show me the way to the railway station, please?” - Passer-by: “ ___ ” A. No way. B. Just round the comer over there.C. Look it up in a dictionary!D. There’s no traffic near here. Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 11: Prices are increasing dramatically in big cities. The___ seems to go up every day. A. standard of living B. quality of life C. annual income D. cost of living Question12:The government should take some measures to__that tourism develops in harmony with the environment. A. promote B. ensure C. facilitate D. improve Question 13: They___ actions to stop the blaze spreading. However, they didn’t do that. A. must have taken B. had to take C. neededn’t have taken D. should have taken Question 14: When Tim was a child, there___ a park near his house. A. used to be B. used to have been C. used to have D. used to be being Question 15: Mr Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his___. He used to be a taxi driver there for 10 years. A. head B. mind C. hand D. life Question 16: Although she is my sister, I find it hard to___ her selfishness. A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up with D. come down with Question 17: David refused___ in the contest because he was ill. A. to participate B. participate C. participating D. to participating Question 18: ___ people are those who share the same interests, or points of view. A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded Question 19: ___ in the Middle East, oil became known as black gold because of the large profit it brought. A. That when discovered B. Discovered C. Discovering D. Which was discovered Question 20. He has just bought a___ schoolbag. A. small plastic blue B. blue small plastic C. plastic small blue D. small blue plastic. Question 21. We should make full___ of renewable sources of energy such as wind and solar power in the world. A. effort B. use C. need D. limit Question 22. The boy quickly___ the old woman’s telephone number to memory. A. devoted B. added C. committed D. admitted Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks After winter months, the days become longer, the buds (23)___ in the trees, birds sing, and the world (24)___ a green dress. Spring passes (25)___ summer. Everyone knows that summer will not (26)___. The power of all the wisest men and women in the world cannot keep it for us. The com becomes ripe, the leaves turn brown and then drop to the ground, (27)___ the world changes its green dress for a dress of autumn colors. Question 23: A. fall off B. take up C. put off D. come out Question 24: A. looks after B. puts on C. carries on D. deals with Question 25: A. into B. by C. from D. on Question 26: A. forego B. evaluate C. succumb D. last Question 27: A. yet B. therefore C. whereas D. and Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. After twenty years of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the United States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard’s MBA School has shown a substantial increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their enrollments. Since 1990, the number of 7
8. people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA) degrees, has dropped about 3 percent to 75,000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to continue. There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on Wall Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entry- level management jobs are going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as those holding MBA degrees. Students have asked the question, “Is an MBA degree really what I need to be best prepared for getting a good job?” The second major factor has been the cutting of American payrolls and the lower number of entry-level jobs being offered. Business needs are changing, and MBA schools are struggling to meet the new demands. Question 28. What is the main focus of this passage? A. Jobs on Wall Street B. Types of graduate degrees C. Changes in enrollment for MBA schools D. How schools are changing to reflect the economy Question 29. The word “prosperity” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the following? A. success B. surplus C. nurturing D. education Question 30. Which of the following business schools has shown an increase in enrollment? A. Princeton B. Harvard C. Stanford D. Yale Question 31. Which of the following descriptions most likely applies to Wall Street? A. a center for international affairs B. a major financial center C. a shopping district D. a neighborhood in New York Question 32: According to the passage, what are two causes of declining business school enrollments? A. lack of necessity for an MBA and an ecorfomic recession B. low salary and foreign competition C. fewer MBA schools and fewer entry-level jobs D. declining population and economic prosperity Question 33: As used in the second paragraph, the word “struggling” is closest in meaning to___. A. evolving B. plunging C. starting D. striving Question 34: Which of the following might be the topic of the next paragraph? A. MBA schools’ efforts to change B. Future economic predictions C. A history of the recent economic changes D. Descriptions of non-MBA graduate programs Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. The main cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the plaque have been “primed” by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental hygiene program should be followed. Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early carious lesions. In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective. Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when eating sweets. Question 35. What does this passage mainly discuss? A. Good nutrition B. Food with fiber C. Ways to keep your teeth health D. Fluoridization and cavities Question 36. According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT ___. A. It consists of acid producing bacteria B. It is not affected by eating sweets C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva Question 37. We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is___. A. It strengthens tooth enamel B. It stimulates saliva production C. It makes teeth whiter D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care Question 38. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to___. 8
9. A. dental floss B. bacteria C. removal of plaque D. plaque Question 39. What can be concluded from the passage about sweets? A. All sweets should be avoided. B. Sweets should be eaten with care. C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day. D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets. Question 40. The word “scrape off” in line 29 is closest in meaning to___. A. repel B. rub together with C. remove D. dissolve Question 41. According to the passage, the value of eating foods with fiber is that___. A. they contain Vitamin A B. they are less expensive than a toothbrush C. they are able to remove the plaque from your teeth D. they contain no sugar Question 42. The author states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your saliva increases___. A. with the amount of sweets you eat B. with the number of times you eat sweets C. if you eat sweets with your meals D. if you eat sticky sweets Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 43: Sometimes what is best for society is not always good for an individual living in that society. A. From time to time, there is a conflict between the benefits of a society and an individual living in that society. B. Individuals not always seek for the best of the society they live in. C. It is impossible for individuals to accept the rules of the society they live in. D. What is best for individuals is always suitable for the society they live in. Question 44: Much to my surprise, I found her lecture on wild animals extremely interesting. A. Contrary to my expectations, her lecture on wild animals was the most fascinating of all. B. I was fascinated by what she said in her lecture on wild animals though I hadn’t expected to be. C. I hadn’t expected her to lecture on wild animals, but she spoke well. D. It was at her lecture on wild animals that I realized I needed to study it. Question 45: I had no sooner got to know my neighbors than they moved away. A. Soon after I got to know my new neighbors, I stopped having contact with them. B. If my new neighbors had stayed longer, I would have got to know them better. C. Once I had got used to my new neighbors, they moved somewhere else. D. Hardly had I become acquainted with my new neighbors when they went somewhere else to live. Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 46: Papyrus was used for to make not only paper but also sails, baskets, and clothing. Question 47: Because the boy spent too many time surfing the Internet, he didn’t pass the final exam. Question 48: According to most medical experts, massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and speeding up recovery from illnesses. Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: These students may be excellent. They will not get used to dealing with practical situations. A. Excellent as may be these students, they will get used to dealing with practical situations. B. These students may be too excellent to get used to dealing with practical situations. C. These students will get used to dealing with practical situations although they are excellent. D. Excellent as they may be, these students will not get used to dealing with practical situations. Question 50: She behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot. A. Her behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most. B. She behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much. C.What almost surprised me was the strange way she behaved.D.I was almost not surprised by her strange behaviour. TEST 24 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 01 to 02. Question 01: When the Titanic crashed into the iceberg, the crew quickly sent out distress signals to alert nearby ships of the disaster and request their help. A. amusing B. strange C. bold D. help Question 02: I’m all in favor of ambition but I think when he says he’ll be a millionaire by the time he’s 25, he’s simply crying for the moon. A. longing for what is beyond the reach B. asking for what is attainable C. doing something with vigor or intensity D. crying a lot and for a long time 9
10. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 03 to 04. Question 03: I prefer secure jobs because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the time. A. challenging B. demanding C. stable D. safe Question 04: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on air. A. extremely happy B. extremely light C. feeling extremely unhappy D. feeling extremely airy Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 05 to 09. In the past, people bought goods using (05)__. They rarely borrowed money from financial institutions and only when they had saved the money did they buy what they wanted. Recently, however, there have been great changes in the way people purchase goods. To begin with, some people pay for things by cheque, (06)___ others prefer monthly installments rather than paying the whole amount at once. Most consumers, though, prefer to buy things using their credit cards. (07)___, it is thought that there are benefits to having a credit card. Apart from the fact that credit cards are handy, some stores offer bonus points to people making purchases, while others give discounts on certain products. On the other hand, credit cards must be used wisely because they can prove disastrous. In the long run, consumers find that they can’t (08)___ without their credit cards and constantly rely on them, as they are “easy money”. As a result, some people lose control of their finances spending more than they should end up not being able to (09)___. So they end up in debt and have difficulty in paying it back. Question 05: A. cash B. currency C. change D. notes Question 06: A. when B. while C. why D. what Question 07: A. Last but not least B. Every now and then C. One by one D. By and large Question 08: A. be B. make C. do D. go Question 09: A. do business B. do their best C. make matters worse D. make ends meet Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following exchanges from 10 to 11. Question 10: - Nick: “I’m really tired. I’m taking next week off.” - Michael: “___” A. Well, you must be telling a lie! B. Take care, my love. Have a nice weekend! C. That sounds like a good idea. The break will do you good.D. Really? I don’t know what you are going to do. Question 11: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read. - Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “___” A. Don’t mention it B. That’s nice of you to say so. C. I’d love it. D. I couldn’t agree more. Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 12: My girlfriend and I drink sometimes coffee in the morning in a café near my school. Question 13: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have proved. Question 14: Physics and mental exercise has been found to be beneficial for our brains, but scientists have now found it could also improve the learning ability of our children. Mark A, B, C, or Dto indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 15: They finished one project. They started working on the next. A. Not until did they start working on the next project then they finished one. B. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next C. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next. D. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next. Question 16: The proposal seemed like a good idea. The manager refused it. A. Since the proposal seemed like a good idea, the manager refused it. B. The manager refused the proposal though it seemed like a good idea. C. The proposal didn’t seem like a good idea, so the manager didn’t accept it. D. The manager didn’t like to proposal because it didn’t seem a good idea. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 17 to 24. Newspapers can be traced back to 16th century Venice. In 1566, handwritten news sheets - called 'avis' or ‘gazette' – filled with information on wars and politics in Europe were distributed weekly in Venice. Similar news sheets soon started to appear in other European countries. By 1615, Germany and Austria were publishing weeklies. And in 1621, the first news sheets appeared in England. 10
11. At first, these news sheets only printed news which came from outside the country in which they were printed. Discussion of local or national issues was avoided. Europe’s governments did not tolerate anything negative being said about them as it could lead to national unrest. Such censorship slowed the development of newspapers. Nevertheless, a belief in the importance of a 'free press’ slowly began to take hold in Europe. England was among the first countries to escape government control of the press. This occurred during the reign of King Charles I in the 17th century, when, during a period of breakdown in the king's authority, people began to publish what they wanted. Eventually, free press had the right to criticize government and voice other ideas freely. In the middle of the 18th century, Sweden became the first country to make press freedom a part of its law. In the 19th century, the newspaper industry was transformed by the invention of the telegraph. The telegraph was a communication system that allowed messages to be sent over long distances in a matter of minutes. It wasn’t long before newspapers became society's primary means of spreading and receiving information. In 1880, the first photographs appeared in newspapers and, by the end of the century, all the basic technical tools for the modern newspaper were in place. The story of newspapers in the 20th century was one of adaptation to changing consumer and media markets. The invention of radio, TV, and later the Internet, repeatedly drove newspapers to re-invent themselves. Also, during the 20th century, mass-market advertising increased profitability for newspapers. This attracted large, publicly-owned corporations who began buying newspapers from the descendants of company founders. Over the years, people have periodically predicted the extinction of newspapers. In fact, every time a new media has come into being, dire predictions have been made for existing forms (e.g. television was supposed to have replaced radio, radio was supposed to have replaced newspapers). Yet history has repeatedly shown that new media do not replace existing media. Instead, what happens is that mediaconsumption grows, which creates the necessary space for the new media to become a part of the media landscape. According to the World Association of Newspapers (WAN), each day more than 1.5 billion people around the world read a newspaper. The WAN has also estimated the total annual worth of the global newspaper industry and put it at just under 180 billion USD. Such statistics suggest the newspaper industry is healthier than at any other time in its history. Indeed, if the industry proves itself as capable of adapting to change as it has done in the past, it is unlikely that newspapers will be disappearing from newsstands anytime soon. Question 17: In the 19th century, ___. A. information in newspapers became more technical B. the newspaper industry invented the telegraph C. photos signaled the start of the modern newspaper era D. the role of newspapers became more important Question 18: In paragraph 1, we learn that___. A. Europe was at wat in 1566 B. news travelled slowly in Europe C. newspapers get their name from 16th century news sheet D. daily editions of newspapers were a later development Question 19: In the 20th century, newspapers___. A. invented mass-market advertising B. began to pass to public hands C. lost many readers to TV D. used ads to attract investors Question 20: The extinction of newspapers___ A. would probably have occurred if radio had been more popular. B. would allow for more media to become part of the media landscape. C. is a prediction unsupported by past evidence. D. was original predicted by the media itself. Question 21: The first news sheet___. A. were checked by authorities B. avoided all controversial topics C. were distributed internationally D. discussed foreign issues Question 22: In paragraph 3, we learn that___. A. England was the first to believe in a free press. B. Sweden’s “press freedom” law followed England’s C. King Charles I opposed a free press D. criticizing governments was the original purpose of a free press Question 23: The pronoun “it” in the last paragraph refers to___. A. change B. history C. the newspaper industry D. the WAN Question 24: The word “to take hold” in paragraph 3 mostly means___. A. to take place B. to make a mess C. to become very strong D. to lose control Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 25 to 29. 11
12. Why are there so many grandmothers and so few grandfathers? In other words, why do men die younger than women? Is this because men are afraid of getting old and helpless and so they prefer to die before that happens? Perhaps they fear to be left alone by their women and so decide to do the leaving first. Many explanations are given for the fact that men die earlier than women. Men are stronger physically, yet women can hang on longer to life. Both men and women are emotional creatures but women are not afraid or ashamed to cry while men refuse to do so. They are afraid of being thought "soft". Some men, when they are upset, play loud music or dig in the garden to relieve their feelings. Many men like an orderly life so that they bury themselves in their work or want a wife with some children or long to take part in wars where there is a definite chain of command. There is a leader to give orders and a known enemy to fight against and defeat. All these make men feel they live in a rational world. So the majority of men like a rational world. Rationality is fine but it does not include everything that makes life joyful and fun or even messy and frustrating. When a man refuses to cry he is refusing to accept that his emotions are part of him. Of course some men do not follow this pattern. Bob Hawke is capable of crying in public whereas Margaret Thatcher is probably incapable of crying at any time. We need to cry because that shows our ability to suffer. If we do not suffer we are not really alive at all. Suffering can be creative or destructive. If we can all learn to cry and laugh and shout and dance openly, we are living creatively and adding something to the human race. We often say men suffer more from stress and therefore they die earlier. Are we not saying in another way that they do not know how to suffer in the right way – with tears and laughter instead of silence – and so they are miserable and just give up? That is just my theory of course. Have you a better one? Question 25: What does the word "that" in the passage refer to? A. The fact that men get old and helpless B. The fact that they fear to be left alone C. The fact that men die younger than women D. The fact that they decide to do the leaving first Question 26: What’s the main question the article is intended to discuss? A. Why women are more emotional than men B. Why suffering is different in men and women C. Why men die earlier than women D. Why men like a rational world Question 27: What is found the same for both men and women? A. They like to cry B. They are physically strong C. They are emotional creatures D. They want to play loud music Question 28: The phrase “to do the leaving” is closest in meaning to___. A. set off B. go down C. pass away D. depart Question 29: What’s the writer’s opinion toward crying? A. It is a good thing for people to cry. B. It is all right for women to cry but shameful for men. C. Tears are not real signs of suffering. D. To be silent is better than to cry. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation of the underlined part in each of the following questions from 30 to 31. Question 30: A. collected B. divided C. spoiled D. polluted Question 31: A. break B. spread C. steak D. great Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one from 32 to 34. Question 32: He broke up with her but now he thinks that was a mistake. A. He feels a pity that he had broken up with her. B. He wishes not to have broken her up. C. He regrets having broken up with her. D. He was mistaken with breaking up with her. Question 33: It’s possible that the plane has been delayed because of the bad weather. A. The weather must have been very bad, or else their plane wouldn’t have been delayed. B. It may be the bad weather that has caused the plane to be delayed. C. The obvious reason for the plane’s being delayed for so long is the bad weather. D. It’s certainly the bad weather which had resulted in the plane’s being late. Question 34: Does it make sense to apply to university or should I take a gap year? A. Is it worth applying university or should I take a gap year? B. Is it possible that I should apply to university after a gap year? C. Is it sensible that I should apply to university or take a gap year instead? D. I can’t decide whether to apply to university or take a gap year. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 35 to 48. Question 35: I have left my book in___ kitchen and I would like you to get it for me. A. the B. a C. Ø D. an 12
13. Question 36: If a drop of oil is placed in a glass of water, it___ to the top. A. will float B. would float C. does float D. should float Question 37: When Carol___ ast night, I___ my favorite show on television. A. called / was watching B. had called / watched C. called / have watched D. was calling / watched Question 38: ___ what she prepared for the job interview, Megan didn’t pass it. A. Despite of B. In spite of C. Though D. However Question 39: Why are you always so jealous___ other people? A. in B. of C. below D. on Question 40: ___ the age of 21, he was able to gamble in Las Vegas. A. When reached B. Upon reaching C. Reached D. As reaching Question 41: Although___ by the bravery of his fellow soldiers, Bloch had harsh words for the army leadership. A. was impressed B. impressed C. having impressed D. impressing Question 42: Sandra hated___ though she didn’t say a word. A. photographing B. to being photographed C. being photographed D. being photograph Question 43: Many countries’ cultural___ is a result of taking in immigrants from all over the world. A. diverse B. diversified C. diversify D. diversity Question 44:___ is imperative in your new job. The director disapproves of being late. A. Being on time B. Having time C. Taking time D. Keeping time Question 45: His speech___ little or no relation to the topic given. A. was B. reflected C. gave D. bore Question 46: Any candidates caught___ in the examination will be disqualified. A. cheating B. deceiving C. conjuring D. deluding Question 47: When he woke up, he realized that the things he had dreamt about could not___ have happened. A. possibly B. likely C. certainly D. potentially Question 48: Katie O’Donovan, public policy manager at Google UK, said the company had shown its___ to protecting children by developing its resources – such as an online safety course has been taught to 40,000 schoolchildren. A. interest B. keenness C. enthusiasm D. commitment Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 49 to 50. Question 49: A. personify B. generate C. affection D. encourage Question 50: A. contain B. achieve C. improve D. enter TEST 25 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. described B. missed C. pronounced D. booked Question 02: A. concentrate B. convention C. conceal D. confide Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03: A. maintain B. marriage C. believe D. response Question 04: A. informationB. generation C. situation D. examination Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question05:It’s recommended he_a foreign language in his 1st year instead of waiting until the following there. A. taking B. take C. takes D. took Question 06: We arranged to meet at the station, but she didn’t___. A. walk out B. get throught C. turn up D. wait on Question 07: It’s a secret. You___ let anyone know about it. A. mightn’t B. needn’t C. may not D. musn’t Question 08: She has just bought___. A. a Swiss beautiful brand-new watch B. a beautiful brand-new Swiss watch C. a Swiss brand-new beautiful watch D. a brand-new beautiful Swiss watch Question 09: Safety should take___ over all the matters in the workplace. A. preceding B. precedent C. precede D. precedence 13
14. Question 10: The last person___ the room should turn off the lights. A. left B. leaves C. leaving D. to leave Question 11: The survey was to find out the young people’s attitudes___ love and marriage. A. above B. beneath C. towards D. with Question 12: One study found that men’s contribution___ housework has doubled over the past four decades. A. for B. on C. with D. to Question 13: The Vietnamese Women’s Football team___ defended the SEA Games title at the 22nd Southeast Asian Games held in Viet Nam. A. succeed B. successful C. successfully D. success Question 14: ___ hard he worked, he could earn enough money to support the family. A. However B. Whatever C. Therefore D. But Question 15: Never before___ as accelerated as they are now during the technological age. A. historical have been changes B. historical changes have been C. changes have been historical D. have historical changes been Question 16: ___ you study for the exam, ___ you will do A. The more/ the much B. The harder/ the better C. The more hard/ the more good D. The hardest/ the best Question 17: My mother___ the responsibility for running the household chores. A. runs B. bears C. holds D. takes Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the questions. Question 18: The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer. A. speed B. expect more C. do better D. treat better Question 19: The film is not worth seeing. The plot is too dull. A. simple B. boring C. complicated D. slow Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the questions. Question 20: The doctor advised Peter to give up smoking. A. finish B. consider C. stop D. continue Question 21: He’d never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting in May. A. politeness B. encouragement C. rudeness D. measurement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 22: John: “How have you been recently?” David:“ ___ ” A. It’s too late now. B. By bus, I think. C. Pretty busy, I think. D. No, I’ll not be busy. Question 23: Jane: “It was very kind of you to help me out, Paul? ” Paul : “___” A. You can say that again.B. That’s was the least I could do.C. I’m glad you like it. D. Thanks a million. Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 24: Had the teacher realized that the students couldn’t understand him, he would speak louder. Question 25: No sooner had they returned home from the holiday when Tony had to leave for a business trip. Question 26: There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Environmental Concerns Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (27)___ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the lonely resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (28)___ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover completely. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (29)___ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are making increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth's (30)_ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (31)_ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will go indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. Question 27: A. Although B. Yet C. Still D. Despite Question 28: A. neither B. sooner C. rather D. either Question 29: A. result B. reaction C. development D. product 14
15. Question 30: A. living B. real C. natural D. genuine Question 31: A. maintain B. stay C. hold D. keep Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 32: John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam. A. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam B. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam C. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam Question 33: The buses began to pull out. Most of them were full passengers. A. The passengers, most of them were full of, began to pull out the buses. B. The buses, most of which were full of passengers, began to pull out. C. The passengers, most of whom were full of the buses, began to pull out. D. The buses, most of them were full of passengers, began to pull out. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 34: You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills. A. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free. B. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it. C. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.D. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat. Question 35: I am not certain, but there may be about twenty applicants for the job. A. Twenty people are guessed to have applied for the job B. At a guess, there are about twenty applicants for the job C. I guess that there are twenty applicants for the job D. I am not sure if there are about twenty applicants for the job. Question 36: He last has his eyes tested ten months ago. A. He didn’t have any test on his eyes ten months before. B. He had tested his eyes ten months before. C. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then. D. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions below. Floods are second only to fire as the most common of all natural disasters. They occur almost everywhere in the world, resulting in widespread damage and even death. Consequently, scientists have long tried to perfect their ability to predict floods. So far, the best that scientists can do is to recognize the potential for flooding in certain conditions. There are a number of conditions, from deep snow on the ground to human error, that cause flooding. When deep snow melts it creates a large amount of water. Although deep snow alone rarely causes floods, when it occurs together with heavy rain and sudden warmer weather it can lead to serious flooding. If there is a fast snow melt on top of frozen or very wet ground, flooding is more likely to occur than when the ground is not frozen. Frozen ground or ground that is very wet and already saturated with water cannot absorb the additional water created by the melting snow. Melting snow also contributes to high water levels in rivers and streams. Whenever rivers are already at their full capacity of water, heavy rains will result in the rivers overflowing and flooding the surrounding land. Rivers that are covered in ice can also lead to flooding. When ice begins to melt, the surface of the ice cracks and breaks into large pieces. These pieces of ice move and float down the river. They can form a dam in the river, causing the water behind the dam to rise and flood the land upstream. If the dam breaks suddenly, then the large amount of water held behind the dam can flood the areas downstream too. Broken ice dams are not the only dam problems that can cause flooding. When a large human-made dam breaks or fails to hold the water collected behind it, the results can be devastating. Dams contain such huge amounts of water behind them that when sudden breaks occur, the destructive force of the water is like a great tidal wave. Unleashed dam waters can travel tens of kilometres, cover the ground in metres of mud and debris, and drown and crush every thing and creature in their path. Although scientists cannot always predict exactly when floods will occur, they do know a great deal about when floods are likely, or probably, going to occur. Deep snow, ice-covered rivers, and weak dams are all strong conditions for potential flooding. Hopefully, this knowledge of why floods happen can help us reduce the damage they cause. Question 37: Whlch of the following is the main topic of the passage? A. Broken ice dams B. Deep snow melting C. Causes of floods D. Consequences of floods Question 38: Which of the following are included as causes for floods in the reading passage? A. droughts B. large lakes C. melting snow D. poorly built roads Question 39: Which of the following best describes how a frozen river can cause a flood? A. The ice in the river cracks into pieces that eventually create a dam causing the water to overflow. 15
16. B. The water behind the ice dam collects and when the dam breaks, it causes flooding upstream. C. The ice in the river melts too quickly and causes a flood. D. The ice in the river cracks causing the water to overflow. Question 40: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to___. A. Pieces of ice B. Streams C. Heavy rainsD. Rivers Question 41: What kinds of problems can floods cause? A. widespread damage B. destruction of plants and animals C. downstream D. death Question 42: The word “unleashed” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___. A. almost flooded B. quite strong C. perfect D. let free Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that knowledge of when floods exactly happen___. A. helps people improve conditions for potential flooding B. is likely to be predicted correctly C. is still a question for scientists D. can be easily seen by the scientists Read and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions below. Alexis de Tocqueville, the French political scientist, historian, philosopher and politician, is most famous for a four-volume book he wrote called “Democracy in America”. He came to America in 1831 to study the American form of democracy and what it might mean to the rest of the world. After a visit of only nine months, he wrote a remarkable book which is regarded as a classic. De Tocqueville had unusual powers of observation. He described not only the democratic system of government and how it operated, but also its effect on how Americans think, feel, and act. Many scholars believe he had a deeper understanding of traditional American beliefs and values than anyone else who has written about the United States. What is so remarkable is that many of these traits which he observed nearly 200 years ago, are still visible and meaningful today. His observations are also important because the timing of his visit, the 1830s, was before America was industrialized. This was the era of the small farmer, the small businessman, and the settling of the western frontier. It was the period of history when the traditional values of the new country were newly established. In just a generation, some 40 years since the adoption of the U.S. Constitution, the new form of government had already produced a society of people with unique values. He was, however, a neutral observer and saw both the good and bad sides of these qualities. Question 44: What makes Alexis de Tocqueville special? A. His long-ago observations are still visible and meaningful today. B. He wrote about “Democracy in America” C. He named after Alexis de Tocqueville. D. He read the impact of the book “Democracy in America” Question 45: Alexis de Tocqueville’s nationality is___. A. French B. American C. United States D. France Question 46: What is special about Alexis de Tocqueville? A. He had a deeper understanding. B. He came to America in 1831. C. He had unusual powers of observation. D. He had written about the United States. Question 47: The phrase “these traits” refers to___. A. observations B. how Americans think, feel, and act C. traditional American beliefs and values D. visible and meaningful observations Question 48: What is the passage primarily about? A. the progress achieved in America within about 40 years after adoption of the U.S. Constitution B. “Democracy in America” C. Alexis de Tocqueville D. the impact of the book “Democracy in America” Question 49: The word “unique” in the passage is closest in meaning to___. A. clearly identifiable B. outstanding C. unmatched D. positive Question 50: The word “neutral” in the passage is closest in meaning to___. A. impartial B. important C. thorough D. careful TEST 26 Read and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was recognized when the sun was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent solar time, even though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time (DST), sometimes called summer time, was instituted to make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight. 16
17. Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate in Paris in 1984 and wrote about it extensively in his essay, "An Economical Project." It is said that Franklin awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the economist, Franklin believed the practice of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight, as candles were expensive at the time. In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone, including himself, would appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and introduced into Parliament several times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers. Eventually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day following the third Saturday in April and close after the first Saturday in October. The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and set Daylight Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on "the mean astronomical time of the seventy-fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich" (England). In 1919, this act was repealed. President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–1945. However, after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to television and radio broadcasting and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the Department of Transportation was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s, President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further. This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to begin on the first Sunday in April (to spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back). Question 01: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to___. A. Franklin’s idea of daylight saving B. Franklin's first conception C. Franklin’s first official tenure D. Franklin’s delegation Question 02: The word “obligatory” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___. A. imperative B. approved C. deficient D. peculiar Question 03: Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s? A. Sir Robert Pearce B. television and radio broadcasting companies C. farmers D. the U.S. Congress Question 04: The word “devised” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___. A. divided B. invented C. ordered D. adapted Question 05: Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation? A. It was created by President Richard Nixon. B. It set standards for DST throughout the world. C. It constructed the Uniform Time Act. D. It oversees all time laws in the United States. Question 06: The Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for___. A. extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation B. preserving and setting Daylight Saving Time across the continent C. instituting five time zones in the United States D. conserving energy by giving the Department of Transportation authority over time laws Question 07: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage? A. Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act B. The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time C. The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving Time D. Daylight Saving Time in the United States Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 08: You have to study hard to___ your classmates. A. keep pace with B. get in touch with C. catch sight of D. look out for Question 09: There are many people___ lives have been spoilt by that factory. A. whom B. who C. whose D. when Question 10: He___ for that company since he arrived here. A. has been worked B. has worked C. had been working D. was working Question 11: Nobody seemed to be interested in the news. It was greeted with a lack of___. A. enthusiasticB. enthusiasm C. enthusiastically D. enthusiast Question 12: Many plants and endangered species are now endangering of___. A. expression B. expulsion C. extinction D. extension 17
18. Question 13: The article analyzes the impact of the tax based___ real estate prices and sales. A. in B. on C. at D. with Question 14:“I think Jane is at home”_“No, she_be at home, for she phoned me from the airport just 10 minutes ago.” A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. can’t D. won’t Question 15: She is wearing a___ dress. She is said to be the most beautiful girl in the party. A. short pink wedding B. pink wedding short C. wedding pink short D. pink short wedding Question 16: Mary will have finished all her work___. A. as soon as her boss returned B. until her boss will return C. by the time her boss returns D. when her boss will return Question 17: Most___ people in___ Vietnam are preparing for the Lunar New Year. A. the / Ø B. Ø / the C. Ø / Ø D. the / an Question 18: The more you talk about the matter, ___. A. the situation seems the worse B. the situation seems worse C. the worse seems the situation D. the worse the situation seems Question 19: Mary enjoys___ to music when she has her free time. A. to listen B. listening C. listen D. being listened Question 20: The teachers at the school went___ with flu one after the other. A. out B. down C. off D. under Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 21: A. attacks B. repeats C. roofs D. trays Question 22: A. stomach B. watch C. change D. church Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 23: A. appear B. destroy C. visit D. attempt Question 24: A. tomorrow B. construction C. relation D. pessimist Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 25: The mother aksed her little daughter studying harder for the final exam. Question 26: Alice in Wonderland, first published in 1865, has being translated into thirty languages. Question 27: Are you sure Tereshkova was the first woman traveling in space? Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 28: - Lucy: What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary! - Sue: “___” A. Thank you very much. I am afraid B. You are telling a lie C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don't like your sayings Question 29: Mike and Lane are neighbors. They are talking about Lane’s party. Mike: “Thank you for a lovely evening” Lane: “___” A. It depends on you B. Thank you very much indeed. C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it D. You are welcome Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in the questions. Question 30: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization, was established in 1946 A. set up B. found out C. run through D. put away Question 31: Many species have become extinct each year before biologists can identify them. A. destroy B. discover C. endanger D. drain Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in the questions. Question 32: "Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight." A. turn down B. slow down C. hurry up D. put forward Question 33: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours. A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 34: I haven’t met old English teacher since I left school. A. I didn’t have a chance to meet my old English teacher because I left school. B. This is the last time I met my old English teacher at shool. C. I last met my old English teacher when I left school. D. My old English teacher hasn’t met me since I have left school. Question 35: They think that the owner of the house has gone abroad. 18
19. A. The owner of the house is thought to go abroad. B. The owner of the house is thought to have been going abroad. C. The owner of the house is thought to have been gone abroad. D. The owner of the house is thought to have gone abroad. Question 36: Without this treatment, the patient would have died. A. If it hadn’t been for this treatment, the patient would have died. B. Unless the patient hadn’t had this treatment, he would have died. C. Had not the patient had this treatment, he would have died. D. But for the patient had had this treatment, he would have died. Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 37: If you need my advice, I'm against your buying that car. A. If it were me, I'll buy that car. B. If I were you, I wouldn't buy that car. C. If it were me, I hadn't bought that car. D. If I were you, I would buy that car. Question 38: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it. A. Because she didn‘t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it. B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‘t pass it. C. Although she did her best, she could hardly pass the driving test. D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 45. English is the (39)___ important language in the world today. A very large number of people understand and use English in all parts of the world. Indeed, English is very useful language. If we know English, we can go to any place or country we like. We shall not find it hard to (40)___ people understand what we wish to say. English also helps us to learn all kinds of subjects. Hundreds of books are written in English everyday in all (41)_ __ to teach people many useful things. The English language has therefore helped to spread ideas and knowledge to all the corners of the world. There is no subject that cannot be learned in the English language. As English is used so much everywhere in the world, it has helped to make the countries of the world become more (42)___ with one another. The leaders of the world use English to understand one another. The English language has therefore also helped to spread better understanding and friendship among countries of the world. Lastly, a person (43)___ knows English is respected by people. It is for all these reasons that I want to learn English. Question 39: A. most B. mostly C. chiefly D. best Question 40: A. get B. let C. persuade D. make Question 41: A. places B. sites C. countries D. scenes Question 42: A. friend B. friendly C. friendship D. friendliness Question 43: A. what B. whom C. who D. whose Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. Global emissions of carbon dioxide from fossil fuel burning jumped by the largest amount on record in 2010. Emissions rose 5.9 percent in 2010, according to an analysis released on Sunday by the Global Carbon Project. Scientists said the increase was almost certainly the largest absolute jump in any year since the Industrial Revolution. The increase solidified a trend of ever-rising emissions that will make it difficult, if not impossible, to stop severe climate change in coming decades. The burning of coal represented more than half of the growth in emissions, the analysis found. In the United States, emissions dropped by a remarkable 7 percent in the year of 2009, but rose by over 4 percent in 2010, the new analysis shows. “Each year, emissions go up, and there’s another year of negotiations, another year of indecision,” said Glen P. Peters, a researcher at the Center for International Climate and Environmental Research. “There’s no evidence that this path we’ve been following in the last 10 years is going to change.” Scientists say the rapid growth of emissions is warming the Earth and putting human welfare at long-term risk. But their increasingly urgent pleas that society find a way to limit emissions have met sharp political resistance in many countries because doing so would involve higher energy costs. The new figures show a continuation of a trend in which developing countries have surpassed the wealthy countries in their overall greenhouse emissions. In 2010, the burning of fossil fuels and the production of cement sent more than nine billion tons of carbon into the atmosphere, the new analysis found, with 57 percent of that coming from developing countries. 19
20. On the surface, the figures of recent years suggest that wealthy countries have made headway in stabilizing their emissions. But Dr. Peters pointed out that, in a sense, the rich countries have simply exported some of them. The fast rise in developing countries has been caused to a large extent by the growth of energy-intensive manufacturing industries that make goods that rich countries import. “All that has changed is the location in which the emissions are being produced,” Dr. Peters said. Many countries, as part of their response to the economic crisis, invested billions in programs designed to make their energy systems greener. While it is possible, the new numbers suggest they have had little effect so far. Question 44: Many governments in the world resist limiting emissions because___. A. it is not the best way to solve such problems B. they don’t realize the risks of carbon emissions C. it would probably harm human welfare in the long run D. they are unwilling to accept higher energy costs Question 45: According to the passage, the report found that the burning coal accounts for___ of the increase in total emissions. A. more than half B. one-third C. only about 7 percent D. over 4 percent Question 46: According to Glen P. Peters, we can learn that___. A. the rapid growth of emissions contributes to potential risks for humans B. rich countries actually take more responsibility for the growth of emissions C. human beings will follow the same path of negotiations in the next 10 years D. some countries negotiate together yearly whether to reduce the amounts of emissions Question 47: The word “urgent” in the passage is closest in meaning to___. A. needful B. pressing C. related D. unsolved Question 48: Which of the following is TRUE according to the text? A. Emissions in the United States dropped by about 7 percent in 2010. B. Developing countries will produce less emissions with economic development. C. There is a long way to go for many countries to limit the fast growth of emissions. D. Over 50 percent of the growth in emissions resulted from the burning of fossil fuels. Question 49: The phrase “On the surface” in the seventh paragraph means most nearly the same as ___. A. Not thought about deeply or thoroughly B. Just the tip of the iceberg C. Judging from what can be seen D. To all intents and purposes Question 50: What is the main idea of this passage? A. an analysis released by the Global Carbon Project B. the record jump in carbon dioxide emissions C. the possible climate change in future decades D. the main harm of greenhouse gases TEST 27 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold and underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01: A. custom B. cushion C. mushroom D. culture Question 02: A. presses B. precedes C. judges D. catches Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 03: I am sure your sister will lend you a sympathetic___ when you explain the situation to her. A. eye B. ear C. arm D. finger Question 04: Mr. Pike is certainly a___ writer; he has written quite a few books this year. A. prolific B. fruitful C. fertile D. successful Question 05:We were quite impressed by the_students who came up with the answer to our question almost instantly. A. absent-minded B. big-headed C. quick-witted D. bad-tempered Question 06: My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he___ to the occasion wonderfully. A. raised B. rose C. fell D. faced Question 07: Daisy’s spent the last 2 weekends_hundreds of photographs so that she can put them in separate albums. A. playing at B. sorting out C. cutting off D. filling up Question 08: I didn’t see the red light at the crossroads. Otherwise, I___ my car. A. stopped B. had stopped C. would have stopped D. would stop Question 09: I much preferred it when we___ to Wales every summer on holiday. A. used to go B. were used to going C. had gone D. have been going Question 10: The incident happening last week left her___ confused and hurt. A. feel B. felt C. feeling D. to feel 20
21. Question 11: “We gave them the money yesterday, but we haven't received a receipt yet,__?’’ she asked her husband. A. didn't we B. have we C. did we D. haven’t we Question 12: You and your big mouth! It was supposed to be a secret. You___ her! A. shouldn't have told B. mightn’t have told C. mustn't have told D. couldn't have told Question 13: Despite their normal cylindrical form, some of the documents___ on silk that were found at Mawangdui, an archaeological site in southeastern China, were folded into rectangles. A. wrote B. written C. were written D. be written Question 14: John's___ and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager. A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the bold and underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in each of the following questions. Question 15: Many organizations have been involved in drawing up the report on environmental campaigns. A. concerned about B. confined in C. enquired about D. engaged in Question 16. His girlfriend’s behavior at the party was unacceptable, which made everyone there shocked. A. out of practice B. out of line C. out of the habit D. out of sight Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 17: A. notify B. advocate C. influence D. interfere Question 18: A. royal B. unique C. remote D. extreme Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19: If any employee knowingly breaks the terms of this contract, he will be dismissed immediately. A. coincidentally B. deliberately C. instinctively D. accidentally Question 20: Wendy is on the horns of a dilemma: she just wonders whether to go for a picnic with her friends or to stay at home with her family. A. unwilling to make a decision B. able to make a choice C. eager to make a plan D. unready to make up her mind Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer that best fits the blank space in the following passage. 21st CENTURY TEACHERS: INEVITABLE CHANGES 21st century teachers need to serve as a guide or mentor for their students, not as the all- knowing sage providing them with everything they need. Nowadays, with so much access (21)___ resources of all kinds, children invariably know more than teachers on different topics, step ahead of the technology. Teachers need to be empowered as facilitators for learning, so that they can empower their students in (22)___. This shift is great news for teachers. Instead of struggling to give kids all the information in areas (23)___ they know little about, teachers can support students as they make their own steps into different fields. It’s about preparing them to go beyond their seniors, ensuring they have the skills to do it, and assisting them along the way. (24)___, teachers need to be forward- thinking, curious and flexible. They must be learners: learning new teaching methods, and learning alongside their students. Simply asking questions like “What will my students need dozens of years from now?” or “How can I help give them those skills?” can change teachers' (25)___, make them a leader, and bring about changes in the classroom, school and community. Question 21: A. to B. with C. for D. in Question 22: A. sight B. use C. line D. turn Question 23: A. what B. that C. where D. whom Question 24: A. For instance B. Therefore C. In practice D. Otherwise Question 25: A. knowledge B. prejudice C. mindset D. judgement Read and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass then entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. 21
22. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees. Question 26: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as ___. A. very few lager animals are found in the desert B. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert D. water is an essential part of his existence Question 27: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means___. A. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants” B. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants” C. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants” D. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own” Question 28: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behaviour of desert animals EXCEPT___. A. they are noisy and aggressive B. they sleep during the day C. they dig home underground D. they are watchful and quiet Question 29: According to the passage, creatures in the desert___. A. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest B. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest C. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world D. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest Question 30: We can infer from the passage that___. A. healthy animals live longer lives B. desert life is colorful and diverse C. water is the basis of desert life D. living things adjust to their environment Question 31: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that ___. A. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees B. they are less healthy than animals living in other places C. they live in an accommodating environment D. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals Question 32: The title for this passage could be___. A. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” B. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment” C. “Life Underground” D. “Desert Plants” Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 33: Harry is talking to Judy over the phone. Harry: “Thank you for helping me prepare for my birthday party, Judy.” Judy: “___.” A. It’s my pleasure B. That’s out of this world C. Never mention me D. Of course not Question 34: Tom and Josh are discussing their summer vacation plan. Tom: “ ___.” Josh: “I don’t think that’s a good idea because it will be costly and strenuous.” A. Is it wise to climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer? B. What if weclimb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer? C. How come will we climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer? D. Why don’t we climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer? Read and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. SHAYNE’S DREAMS COME TRUE - BUT WILL THEY BE SHATTERED? It is a week before The X Factor live tour when I meet the winner of the series, Shayne Ward. “It has been mental,” he says, referring to the past six months of his life. “I've just been talking to Louis Walsh on the phone. Louis Walsh!” Walsh, a top record producer and The X Factor judge, now manages Shayne’s career. “I was talking to Simon Cowell (a celebrity record producer) yesterday!” He shakes his head in amazement. And these people are telling me they're excited about working with me. “I can't get my head round it.” Shayne is about as natural as any pop star arriving in the public arena can be. “I just can’t accept where I am now” he says sincerely. “It doesn't feel real. To me, this is just a job.” “What do you think being famous feels like?” I ask him. “I'm not sure, to be honest. Different from this?” he laughs, with only a hint of nerves. Since winning The X Factor, Shayne's success has been phenomenal. His debut single took just three days to reach the number one spot. On tour, he's going to play to audiences of 10,000 on average. He has already brought the house down at a gig in his home city. “I walked out after that performance and just thought, “I’m dreaming!”” Shayne is one of a family of seven children. Times were hard, but he has never wished or a different childhood. Although he thought about going 22
23. to college, he ended up leaving school at sixteen, just to help his mother pay the rent. He set out on his reality show journey shortly afterwards. When he told he friends he had an audition for The X Factor, none of them really believed him. “I thought I’d go fot it because my family wanted me to, but I never really believed that I would win.” Naturally, Ward is a fan of reality TV talent shows. “They're brilliant, because people who want recording contracts try for years and get nowhere. Then these competitions come along the people at home decide whether they like the singers or not. So its not just a few people at a record company deciding who gets a chance.” But the previous winner of The X Factor only had one hit. He hasn't been heard of since then. Is Shayne Ward going to be another talent show flop? A lot of people feel cynical about reality TV show winners and their chances of continuing success. Audiences usually lose interest in them as soon as the show has finished. In fact, contestants on shows like Big Brother are given severe warnings from the show’s producers beforehand, basically telling them “you will not be liked”. Talent shows like The X Factor have to offer contestants a kind of stardom though, and something they can think of as a career, months afterwards at least. Question 35: The word “flop” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. someone who is unpopular B. someone who is unsuccessful C. someone who isn’t ambitious D. someone who lacks character Question 36: According to the passage, who decide the winner of a reality TV talent show? A. audiences B. contestants C. previous winners D. record companies Question 37: What does the writer suggest about reality talent show winners? A. They are treated badly by producers. B. Their fame is short-lived. C. Audiences never really like them. D. They don’t expect to be popular. Question 38: The word “mental” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to A. psychiatric B. physical C. crazy D. mind-bending Question 39: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to A. the tour B. the experience C. the phone call D. the show Question 40: Which of the following statement is TRUE about Shayne Ward? A. He is certain how well known he is. B. He finds his present situation unacceptable. C. He is confused about the nature of fame. D. He thinks his job isn’t particularly glamorous. Question 41: After performing in his home city, Shayne felt A. overwhelmed B. embarrassed C. disappointed D. relieved Question 42: After leaving school at the age of sixteen, Shayne A. set off on a trip B. gave up performing C. got himself a job D. applied to a college Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 43: Neither the Minister nor his colleagues has given an explanation for the chaos in the financial market last week. Question 44: To everyone's surprise, it wasn't in Bristol which he made his fortune, although that’s where he was born. Question 45: This might not matter with you, but some people are going to be negatively affected by this decision. Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 46: Steve said to Mike, “Don’t touch the electric wires. It might be deadly.” A. Steve advised Mike not to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly. B. Steve warned Mike not to touch the wires as it might be deadly. C. Steve suggested that Mike not touch the electric wires as it might be deadly. D. Steve did not allow Mike to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly. Question 47: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now. A. I could have seen Susan off at the airport. B. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport. C. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now. D. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 48: Sam doesn’t find it difficult to get up early in the morning. A. Sam is in two minds about getting up early in the morning. B. Sam is not hesitant to get up early in the morning. C. Sam is accustomed to getting up early in the morning. D. Sam is pleased with getting up early in the morning. Question 49: People rumour that the Prince secretly got married to an ordinary girl. A. The Prince is rumoured to have secretly got married to an ordinary girl. 23