Đề thi thử Tốt nghiệp Trung học Phổ thông Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2020 - Trường THPT Nguyễn Đức Cảnh

Nội dung text: Đề thi thử Tốt nghiệp Trung học Phổ thông Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2020 - Trường THPT Nguyễn Đức Cảnh

1. SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO THÁI BÌNH KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA 2020 TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN ĐỨC CẢNH MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. dreams B. heals C. waves D. tasks 2. A. cousin B. south C. mouse D. thousand Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. manage B. confide C. maintain D. arrive 4. A. electrical B. attractive C. memorial D. oceanic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 5. Neither of the boys came to school today, ___? A. did he B. didn’t they C. did they D. did she 6. Would you mind ___ your address on the back of this check? A. write B. to write C. writing D. Written 7. Against her parents’ wishes, she wants to be ___ journalist. A. the B. an C. a D. no article 8. Since I left Venezuela six years ago, I ___to visit friends and family several times. A. return B. will have returned C. am returning D. have returned 9. Much of the PPE (personal protective equipment) ___ by doctors and nurses has to be worn once only and destroyed after use. A. wearing B. worn C. to wear D.wear 10. If someone offered you those books, which one ___? A. do you choose B. did you choose C. would you choose D. you would choose 11. Antibiotics cannot be used to treat viral infections ___ they don't kill viruses, only bacteria. A. although B. but C. because D. and 12. As soon as the construction of the new bridge had been completed,___. A. he highway commission will check its safety B. some of the workers have left their tools behind C. the old one was closed down for repair D. the materials would have been brought from abroad 13. We are ___ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here. A. with B. to C. under D. at 14. Could you ___me a favour and post these letters on your way home? A. do B. make C. give D. Bring 15. Doctors cannot currently treat COVID-19 ___ and instead concentrate on relieving symptoms. A. direct B. indirect C. direction D. directly 16. I could not ___ the peak of mountain in the foggy weather. A. get over B. make out C. see through D. go into 17. He___ a lifetime to working with disabled children. A. disposed B. devoted C. advocated D. discouraged 18. As the drug took___the patient became quieter. A. force B. effect C. action D. influence 19. The residents are fighting tooth and ___ to stop massive deforestation in this area. A. nail B. hair C. mouth D. tongue Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 20. Laura has been burning the midnight oil trying to finish the homework, so I think she is exhausted now. A. making every attempt possible B. exercising regularly to keep fit C. staying up working late at night D. having lots of food late at night 21. He gave her a priceless engagement ring. A. worthless B. invaluable C. invalid D. trivial
2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 22. I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear. A. plan well in advance B. listen to others saying C. be careful about it D. do not plan beforehand 23. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war. A. happiness B. loss C. sadness D. pain and sorrow Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. 24. Kim and Anne are talking about the next exams. ~ Kim: "I don’t think I’ll pass the math exam!" ~ Anne: “ ” A. We won’t have it done B. You’ve done your best C. Next time, perhaps. D. Try as much as you can 25. Tim is talking to his father. ~ Tim: “May I use your car, Dad?” ~ His father: “ ” A. Not old enough to do it, son B. Certainly, I can. C. Do it soon you’re free to. D. It’s too far to drive. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. The COVID-19 pandemic in Vietnam is part of the (26) ___ worldwide pandemic of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). On 23 January 2020, the first known case of COVID-19 in Vietnam was reported. As of 30 May 2020, the country had 328 confirmed cases, 279 recoveries, and no deaths. More than 275,000 tests have been performed. Hanoi, as of May is the most- affected city with 114 confirmed cases. Vietnam has (27) ___ the entry of all foreigners from 22 March 2020 until further notice to limit the spread of COVID-19. The measure will not apply to diplomats, officials, foreign investors, experts, and skilled workers. For foreigners (28) ___ entered the country before 1 March including those with temporary residence permits will also be entitled to extensions till 30 June but must present health declarations. Vietnam is cited by global media as having one of the best-organised epidemic control programs in the world, along with Taiwan and South Korea. Several figures have praised Vietnam's response, comparing it (29) ___the success in 2003 when Vietnam became the first country to be cleared of the SARS outbreak. (30) ___inferior economic and technological capacities, the country's response to the outbreak has received acclaim for its immediacy, effectiveness and transparency. (Adapted from Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia) 26. A. upcoming B. interruptory C. ongoing D. gradual 27. A. suspended B. expanded C. widened D. opened 28. A. which B. That C. whose D. whom 29. A. as B. for C. without D. to 30. A. Despite B. Owing to C. Although D. However Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35 Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies. Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time Vermont and Kentucky had joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and half-dollars were produced with sixteen stars. As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would not prove practical and the coins from 1798 on were issued with only thirteen stars-one
3. for each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the 1828 half cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only 12 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error. 31. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Teaching of astronomy in state universities B. Stars on American coins C. Colonial stamps and coins D. The star as national symbol of the United States 32. The word "bore" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. carried B. drilled C. cost D. symbolized 33. The expression “Curiously enough” is used in paragraph 2 because the author finds it strange that__ A. silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794 C. no silver coins were issue until 1794 D. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes 34. Which of the following can be inferred about the order in which Kentucky, Tennessee, and Vermont joined the Union? A. Vermont and Kentucky joined at the same time. B. Kentucky joined before Tennessee and Vermont. C. Tennessee joined after Vermont and Kentucky. D. Vermont joined after Tennessee and Kentucky. 35. Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars? A. There were twelve states at the time. B. There was a change in design policy. C. Tennessee had left the Union. D. The mint made a mistake. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36. to 42 Learning does not just mean studying from a textbook and copying it down come test time — it refers to drawing meaning from your work and seeing how it’s important and connected to a broader concept or idea. Though for many students “learning” may consist of memorizing formulas, dates, and facts, they often miss the bigger picture. If you spend all of your efforts on memorizing and none of your efforts on understanding what you are actually doing, by the time the next test rolls around, the information stored in your short term memory may be completely forgotten. As an example, take two students, Julie and Brian. Both students are in high school, getting ready for an upcoming mathematics test. Julie memorizes the way that you solve each problem, all of the formulas, and knows exactly what steps she needs to do to solve any of the example questions. Brian also memorizes the formulas but concentrates on the why — and understands why the examples are done the way that they are, comprehending the methods and connecting any relevant prior knowledge to each question at hand. Both might ace the test, but come exam time, Julie will have to memorize the concepts all over again — and one slight twist in the question may throw her off. Brian, however, understanding the concepts behind his steps, will be much better off come any challenging question, and practicing questions will come more naturally to him. That being said, not all students must be categorized into being a Julie or a Brian — instead, they may fit in between the two. The important take-away is understanding how important asking “why?” really is. In the midst of stress or a heavy workload, this question is often forgotten — yet it is the key to lifelong learning. Practicing the art of asking “why” not only enriches one’s curiosity, but it feeds your desire to learn beyond the textbook. (Adapted from 36. Which is the most suitable title for the passage? A. How to Prepare for the Next Tests? B. Julie and Brian’s Ways to Learn C. When Can You Ace the Tests. D. What Does Lifelong Learning Mean for Students? 37. The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ___. A. the examples B. the way C. the methods D. prior knowledge 38. According to paragraph 3, why is Brian’s method of learning superior to Julie’s? A. He memorizes clearly and exactly formulas, dates, and facts. B. He memorizes the way to solve each problem thoroughly. C. He does not concentrate on why the problems are solved in the way they are. D. He understands why, comprehends the methods and connects prior knowledge to the question.
4. 39. The word “ace” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___. A. set out B. involve in C. get out D. succeed in 40. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage? A. You should understand the meaning of your work. B. It is enough to memorize formulas, dates, and facts. C. Brian does not concentrate on the why. D. It is not necessary to understand the importance of asking why. 41. The word “twist” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___. A. change B. storage C. relation D. emotion 42. According to the passage, what is one of the benefits of asking why? A. Saying no to textbooks B. Knowledge beyond our effort C. Satisfying our curiosity D. Making heavy work-load easy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 43. The introduction of the (A) new species of (B) plants into Phu Quoc island (C) offer an opportunity to study the (D) response of a natural system to stress. 44. Ecologists are trying (A) to preserve our environment (B) for future generations by protecting (C)the ozone layer, purifying the air, and (D) have planted the trees that have been cut down. 45. The leader (A) intends to hold an (B) initiative ceremony (C) for (D) new members of the organization. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 46. No one in our club can speak English as fluently as Mai. A. Mai speaks English more fluently than no one in our club. B. Mai is the worst English speaker in our club. C. Mai speaks English as fluently as other people in our club. D. Mai speaks English the most fluently in our club. 47. “Don’t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told us. A. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission. B. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission. C. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission. D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission. 48. It’s very likely that the company will accept his application. A. The company needs accept his application. B. The company might accept his application. C. The company must accept his application. D. The company should accept his application. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 49. The demand was so great. They had to reprint the book immediately. A. The demand was such great that they had to reprint the book immediately. B. Such the demand was that they had to reprint the book immediately. C. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately. D. So great the demand was, they had to reprint the book immediately. 50. You should pay him the money back. Otherwise, he will sue you. A. Unless you pay him the money back, he will sue you. B. You should either pay him the money back or he will sue you. C. If you don’t pay him the money back, he would sue you. D. He will not sue you if you receive the money. The end
5. SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA 2020 TỈNH THÁI NGUYÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following questions. Question 1: A student is asking the librarian to help her fax a report. Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?” Librarian: “___” A. Yes, I will send it for you. B. Certainly, what’s the fax number? C. What rubbish. I don’t think it’s helpful. D. It’s very kind of you to say so. Question 2: Hana and Jenifer are talking about the book they have just read. Hana: “This book is really interesting and educational.” Jenifer: “___” A. Absolutely B. I’d love it. C. Don’t mention it. D. That’s nice of you to say so. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. vacant B. equip C. secure D. oblige Question 4: A. decision B. important C. refusal D. reference Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 5: A. forms B. makes C. cups D. corrects Question 6: A. blind B. indoor C. smile D. drive Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: If one fails to achieve a goal, his or her efforts are fruitless. A. useless B. futile C. purposed D. profitable Question 8: The nominating committee always meets behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become known prematurely. A. privately B. safely C. dangerously D. publicly Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 9: ANU has maintained its position as Australia’s top university. A. conserved B. complained C. remained D. conquered Question 10: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play. A. B. famous C. perfect D. skillful Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 11: There will be many new people ___ the party. A. between B. to C. with D. at Question 12: She is looking forward to ___ her friends after a long time living abroad. A. see B. be seen C. not see D. seeing Question 13: It has rained hard since I ___ working. A. stop B. stopped C. have stopped D. had stopped Question 14: Today, household chores have been made much easier by electrical ___. A. utilities B. applications C. instruments D. appliance Question 15: If I ___ money, I would buy that car. A. had B. will have C. having D. have Question 16: Every ___ piece of equipment was sent to the fire. A. consumable B. disposable C. spendable D. available Question 17: Mr. Park Hang Seo, a Korean coach, is considered a big ___ in Vietnam football. A. cheese B. bread C. sandwich D. egg Question 18: They will buy a new computer, ___? A. are they B. will they C. won’t they D. do they Question 19: John ___ her as soon as he graduates this university. A. marry B. marries C. married D. will marry
6. Question 20: Could you show me ___ way to the nearest post office? A. the B. an C. a D. no article Question 21: ___ it rained a lot, we still enjoyed out holiday. A. Because B. Because of C. In spite of D. Although Question 22: He is the only student ___ our problem. A. solve B. to solve C. solving D. be solving Question 23: The council has promised to deal with the serious problem of ___ among young people. A. unemployment B. employment C. unemploy D. unemployed Question 24: My mother ___ the responsibility for running the household. A. bears B. takes C. holds D. runs Question 25: The bomb ___ when the soldiers were running across the field. A. went off B. went on C. went over D. went up Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in (26) ___ cities worldwide. It has been noticed that the difference in temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (27) ___ occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon. Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (28) ___ it is not uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government has (29) ___ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 "Super trees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (30) ___ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient. (Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman) Question 26: A. one B. each C. many D. much Question 27: A. when B. which C. what D. where Question 28: A. and B. for C. otherwise D. however Question 29: A. confessed B. pledged C. committed D. required Question 30: A. home B. house C. place D. land Read the following passage ad mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 35. Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence. The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent. Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practiced, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.
7. Question 31: The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ___. A. explain how water is used in commerce and industry B. describe the properties and uses of water in the oceans C. illustrate the importance of conserving water D. compare water with other liquids Question 32: The phrase “This vast amount” in paragraph 1 refers to ___. A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water B. 300 million cubic miles of water C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D. 24,000 cubic miles of rain Question 33: The word “outstanding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___. A. special B. exceptionally good C. important D. amusing Question 34: According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because ___. A. they do not need oxygen B. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle C. ice floats D. there are currents Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of water? A. Water expands when it is frozen. B. Water can absorb heat. C. Water is a good solvent D. Water contracts on cooling. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember past events, anticipate future ones, make plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are cautious about the extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing. Explanations of animal behavior that leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions entirely to instinct leave many questions unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior: Honeybees communicate the sources of nectar to one another by doing a dance in a figure- eight pattern. The orientation of the dance conveys the position of the food relative to the sun's position in the sky, and the speed of the dance tells how far the food source is from the hive. Most researchers assume that the ability to perform and encode the dance is innate and shows no special intelligence. But in one study, when experimenters kept changing the site of the food source, each time moving the food 25 percent farther from the previous site, foraging honeybees began to anticipate where the food source would appear next. When the researchers arrived at the new location, they would find the bees circling the spot, waiting for their food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose brains weigh four ten-thousandths of an ounce, could have inferred the location of the new site. Other behaviors that may indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter who uses a stone to crack mussel shells, are capable of using objects in the natural environment as rudimentary tools. One researcher has found that mother chimpanzees occasionally show their young how to use tools to open hard nuts. In one study, chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells containing chocolate chips. One pair might contain, say, five chips and three chips, the other our chips and three chips. Allowed to choose which pair they wanted, the chimpanzees almost always chose the one with the higher total, showing some sort of summing ability. Other chimpanzees have learned to use numerals to label quantities of items and do simple sums. Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The use of food in studies of animal behavior. B. Observations that suggest consciousness in animal behavior. C. The role of instinct in animal behavior. D. Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory experiments. Question 37: According to the passage, what is the purpose of the honeybee at a site? A. To communicate the location of food. B. To increase the speed of travel to food sources. C. To identify the type of nectar that is available. D. To determine the quality of food at a site. Question 38: The word “yet” is closest in meaning to ___. A. however B. generally C. so far D. since Question 39: The word “rudimentary” in meaning to ___. A. technical B. original C. superior D. basic Question 40: The phrase “the one” refers to the ___. A. pair B. chimpanzee C. ability D. study
8. Question 41: Why are otters and mussel shells included in the discussion in paragraph 3? A. To provide that certain species demonstrate greater ability in tool use than other species. B. To provide an example of the use of weapons among animals. C. To show that animals are very good at using objects in their habitat. D. To provide an example of tool use among animals. Question 42: Which is true about the conclusion of the scientists from the experiment with chimpanzees and chocolate chips: Chimpanzee ___. A. exhibit behavior that indicates certain mathematical abilities B. have difficulty selecting when given choices C. lack abilities that other primates have D. prefer to work in pairs or groups Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 43: Tina is worrying about her visa. She can’t take her business trip without it. A. Tina can take her business trip provided that she has got her visa. B. Tina can take her business trip supposing she could get her visa. C. If it hadn’t been for the visa, Tina can take her business trip. D. As long as Tina gets her visa, she can’t take her business trip. Question 44: His wife gave birth to the first child. He understood what true responsibility meant. A. Never had he understood before he became a parent himself. B. Were his first child not to be born, he wouldn’t understand true responsibility. C. Not until he became a parent did he understand what true responsibility meant. D. Hardly had he understood true responsibility when their first child was born. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 45: The picture of the soldiers bring back many memories. A. The B. of C. bring D. memories Question 46: Many meetings aren’t so interested as this one was. A. Many B. aren’t C. interested D. one Question 47: My brother usually helps me to learn English and doing a lot of difficult things. A. usually B. helps C. to learn D. doing Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 48: “I met her sister at the supermarket yesterday,” John said. A. John said that I met her sister at the supermarket yesterday. B. John said that I had met her sister at the supermarket yesterday. C. John said that he met her sister at the supermarket the day before. D. John said that he had met her sister at the supermarket the day before. Question 49: It is noisier in the city than it is in the country. A. It is noisier in the country than it is in the city. B. It is not as noisy in the country as it is in the city. C. It is not as noisy in the city as it is in the country. D. It is as noisy in the city as it is in the country. Question 50: It’s possible that Mary is on the way to school now. I am not sure. A. Mary should be on the way to school now. B. Mary may be on the way to school now. C. Mary must be on the way to school now. D. Mary need be on the way to school now. HẾT
9. SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA 2020 TỈNH BẮC GIANG MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from 1 to 2. Question 1: He held the rope with one hand. He stretched it out. A. He stretching the rope with one hand and held it. B. Stretching the rope out, he holds it with one hand. C. The rope is held with one hand then he stretched it out. D. Holding the rope with one hand, he stretched it out. Question 2: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well. A. Living in difficult conditions forced she to study very well. B. Difficult as her living conditions were, she studied very well. C. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well. D. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 3 to 4. Question 3: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. A. separated B. divorced C. single D. married Question 4: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on air. A. feeling extremely unhappy B. feeling extremely airy C. extremely happy D. extremely light Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 5 to 6. Question 5: A. missed B. agreed C. liked D. watched Question 6: A. dedicate B. eliminate C. certificate D. educate Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 7 to 21. Question 7: If she had known how to protect yourself last time, she ___ infected by Covid-19 now. A. would be B. wouldn’t have been C. wouldn’t be D. would have been Question 8: I’d like to see that football match because I ___ once this year. A. haven’t seen B. didn’t see C. don’t see D. weren’t seeing Question 9: I remember ___ to that place once. A. to be taken B. being taken C. taking D. to take Question 10: After a hard-working day, I went to ___ bed and had ___most beautiful dream ever. A. a – the B. O – the C. the – the D. a – a Question 11: Looking ___ three children all day is a hard work. A. through B. up C. to D. after Question 12: The clown was wearing a ___ wig and red nose. A. red plastic funny B. funny plastic red C. red funny plastic D. funny red plastic Question 13: We should participate in the movements ___ the natural environment. A. organizing to conserve B. which organize to conserve C. organized to conserve D. organized conserving Question 14: They have lived next door to us for years, ___ we hardly ever see them. A. so B. yet C. although D. and Question 15: Some people are concerned with physical ___ when choosing a wife or husband. A. attractive B. attract C. attractiveness D. attractively Question 16: Mark Zuckerberg’s enormous success has taken a lot of hard work and ___. A. loyalty B. dedication C. reputation D. indifference Question 17: Martin Luther King devoted his life to the ___ of voting right for black people. A. achievement B. effort C. realization D. performance Question 18: I can’t ___ this noise any longer. I’m going to write a letter of complaint to the local authority about this problem. A. get back to B. put up with C. make out of D. take away from Question 19: Many children are under such a high ___ of learning that they do not feel happy at school. A. concentration B. recommendation C. interview D. pressure
10. Question 20: Her outgoing character contrasts ___ with that of her sister. A. coolly B. sharply C. thoroughly D. fully Question 21: Nothing unusual happened, ___? A. did it B. didn’t it C. didn’t they D. did they Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 22 to 28. Music can bring us to tears or to our feet, drive us into battle or lull us to sleep. Music is indeed remarkable in its power over all humankind, and perhaps for that very reason, no human culture on earth has ever lived without it. From discoveries made in France and Slovenia, even Neanderthal man, as long as 53,000 years ago, had developed surprisingly sophisticated, sweet-sounding flutes carved from animal bones. It is perhaps then, no accident that music should strike such a chord with the limbic system – an ancient part of our brain, evolutionarily speaking, and one that we share with much of the animal kingdom. Some researchers even propose that music came into this world long before the human race ever did. For example, the fact that whale and human music have so much in common even though our evolutionary paths have not intersected for nearly 60 million years suggests that music may predate humans. They assert that rather than being the inventors of music, we are latecomers to the musical scene. Humpback whale composers employ many of the same tricks that human songwriters do. In addition to using similar rhythms, humpbacks keep musical phrases to a few seconds, creating themes out of several phrases before singing the next one. Whale songs in general are no longer than symphony movements, perhaps because they have a similar attention span. Even though they can sing over a range of seven octaves, the whales typically sing in key, spreading adjacent notes no farther apart than a scale. They mix percussive and pure tones in pretty much the same ratios as human composers – and follow their ABA form, in which a theme is presented, elaborated on and then revisited in a slightly modified form. Perhaps most amazing, humpback whale songs include repeating refrains that rhyme. It has been suggested that whales might use rhymes for exactly the same reasons that we do: as devices to help them remember. Whale songs can also be rather catchy. When a few humpbacks from the Indian Ocean strayed into the Pacific, some of the whales they met there quickly changed their tunes – singing the new whales’ songs within three short years. Some scientists are even tempted to speculate that a universal music awaits discovery. Question 22: Why did the author write the passage? A. To show that music is not a human or even modern invention B. To describe the music for some animals, including humans C. To suggest that music is independent of life forms that use it D. To illustrate the importance of music to whales Question 23: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of humpback whales? A. they can sing over a range of seven octaves B. their tunes are distinctively different from human tunes C. they do not use rhyme, unlike humans D. whale songs of a particular group cannot be learned by other whales Question 24: The bold word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ___. A. human composers B. whole songs C. whales D. octaves Question 25: Which of the following is NOT true about humpback whale music? A. It’s easy to learn by other whales B. It’s in a form of creating a theme, elaborating and revisiting in rhyming refrains C. It uses similar patterns to human songs D. It’s comparative in length to symphony movements Question 26: The bold word “refrains” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___ A. words B. tunes C. notes D. sounds Question 27: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Music may have an influence on the whale brain. B. The research of musical brain always leads to a discovery of a universal music. C. The earliest human beings came from France and Slovenia. D. Humpback whales imitate the way human composers work in creating their own music Question 28: Which of the following concepts is defined in the passage? A. the limbic system B. attention span C. the animal kingdom D. symphony movements
11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 29 to 33. According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may be recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually (29) ___ as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment. (30) ___ of the common belief that leaders are people with unusual personal ability, decades of research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of "natural leaders”. It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have (31) ___ common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs of that particular group. Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research suggests that there are (32) ___ two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to "get things done." Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership (33) ___ emphasizes the collective well-beings of a social group's members. Question 29: A. show B. happen C. occur D. emerge Question 30: A. In spite B. Despite C. Although D. Whereas Question 31: A. at B. on C. by D. in Question 32: A. typified B. typical C. typically D. types Question 33: A. those B. who C. what D. which Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined words(s) in each of the following questions from 34 to 35. Question 34: The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust. A. polluted B. filled C. occupied D. concentrated Question 35: You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold. A. keep changing her mood B. keeps taking things C. keeps testing D. keeps going Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges from 36 to 37. Question 36: Jack: “Would you like to go to the movie tonight?” – Jane: “___” A. Of course B. Yes, I like it C. I’d love to D. No, I don’t like it Question 37: Geogre: “In my opinion, action films are exciting.” – Frankie: “___” A. You shouldn’t have said that B. There’s no doubt about it C. What an opinion! D. Yes, congratulations. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 38 to 40. Question 38: Dr Smith is now the fifth wealthiest man in this city. A. Only four people in this city are wealthier than Dr Smith. B. Dr Smith is wealthier than five people in this city. C. Dr Smith is the wealthiest one in this city. D. No one in this city has more wealth than Dr Smith. Question 39: “Congratulations, you’ve been offered the job,” Mr. Jones said. A. Mr. Jones said his congratulations because he offered me a job. B. Mr. Jones congratulated me for my job offer. C. Mr. Jones congratulated me on getting the job offer. D. Mr. Jones wanted me to get the job and congratulated me. Question 40: I should have finished the essay last night, but I was exhausted. A. I finished the essay last night because I was extremely bored. B. I couldn’t finish the essay last night because I was very tired. C. I finished the essay last night because there was nothing else to do. D. I tried to finish it last night, but the essay was too tiring.
12. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 41 to 43. Question 41: Industrial emissions, together with littering, is causing many problems in our large and industrial cities today. A. with B. large and industrial cities C. is D. many Question 42: Clean Up Australia Day welcomes more than half a million volunteers who help to clear thousand of tons garbage from beaches, parks, streets and waterway. A. waterway B. half a million C. garbage D. welcomes Question 43: Few of us would deny that we like to get things for free, or most people don’t cross the line and steal the items. A. Few B. for free C. or D. the line Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 48. Under certain circumstances, the human body must cope with gases at greater-than-normal atmospheric pressure. For example, gas pressures increase rapidly during a drive made with scuba gear because the breathing equipment allows divers to stay underwater longer and dive deeper. The pressure exerted on the human body increases by 1 atmosphere for every 10 meters of depth in seawater, so that at 39 meters in seawater a diver is exposed to pressure of about 4 atmospheres. The pressure of the gases being breathed must equal the external pressure applied to the body, otherwise breathing is very difficult. Therefore all of the gases in the air breathed by a scuba diver at 40 meter are present at five times their usual pressure. Nitrogen, which composes 80 percent of the air we breathe, usually causes a balmy feeling of well-being at this pressure. At a depth of 5 atmospheres, nitrogen causes symptoms resembling alcohol intoxication, known as nitrogen narcosis. Nitrogen narcosis apparently results from a direct effect on the brain of the large amounts of nitrogen dissolved in the blood. Deep dives are less dangerous if helium is substituted for nitrogen, because under these pressures helium does not exert a similar narcotic effect. As a scuba diver descends, the pressure of nitrogen on the lungs increases. Nitrogen then diffuses from the lungs to the blood, and from the blood to body tissues. Nitrogen then diffuses from the lungs to the blood, and from the blood to body tissues. The reverse occurs when the diver surfaces, the nitrogen pressure in the lungs falls and the nitrogen diffuses from the tissues into the blood, and from the blood into the lungs. If the return to the surface is too rapid, nitrogen in the tissues and blood cannot diffuse out rapidly enough and nitrogen bubbles are formed. They can cause severe pains, particularly around the joints. Another complication may result if the breath is held during ascent. During ascent from a depth of 10 meters, the volume of air in the lungs will double because the air pressure at the surface is only half of what it was at 10 meters. This change in volume may cause the lungs to distend and even rupture. This condition is called air embolism. To avoid this event, a diver must ascend slowly, never at a rate exceeding the rise of the exhaled air bubbles, and must exhale during ascent. Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. How to prepare for a deep dive B. The effect of pressure in gases in the human body C. The equipment divers use D. The symptoms of nitrogen bubbles in the bloodstream Question 45: The word “exert” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___. A. need B. change C. cause D. permit Question 46: The word “they” in bold in paragraph 2 refers to ___. A. tissues B. joints C. pains D. bubbles Question 47: What happens to nitrogen in body tissues if a diver ascends too quickly? A. It goes directly to the brain B. It is reabsorbed by the lungs C. It has a narcotic effect D. It forms bubbles Question 48: What should a diver do when ascending? A. Breathe helium B. Relax completely C. Rise slowly D. Breathe faster Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 49 to 50. Question 49: A. attempt B. exchange C. social D. support Question 50: A. important B. uranium C. discovery D. confidential
13. SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA 2020 TỈNH BẮC NINH MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 1 to 15. Question 1: They are leaving here tomorrow, ___? A. aren’t they B. do they C. are they D. did they Question 2: There is no official language at the federal level for ___ U.S. A. a B. an C. O D. the Question 3: Yuri Gagarin died ___ March 27, 1968 in a plane crash. A. on B. for C. at D. in Question 4: Would you mind not ___ the radio on until I’ve finished with this phone call? A. to turn B. to be turned C. turning D. being turned Question 5: If she ___ enough apples now, she would make an apple pie for me. A. had B. have C. has D. has had Question 6: Since he ___, I have heard nothing from him. A. left B. was left C. had left D. has left Question 7: ___ it is raining, we can’t go outside. A. Because B. In spite of C. Because of D. Though Question 8: Mary will have finished all her work ___. A. as soon as her boss returned B. by the time her boss returns C. until her boss will return D. when her boss will return Question 9: I have a message for people ___ by the traffic chaos. A. to delay B. who delay C. who delaying D. delayed Question 10: Thanks to large ___ from her grandmother, Paula was able to buy a villa in the South of France. A. inheritable B. inherited C. heritable D. inheritance Question 11: She thinks they ___ on her because she doesn’t have a job. A. look down B. look up C. look for D. look into Question 12: The woman ___ her dissatisfaction to the builder for not having the house ready on time. A. reported B. referred C. mentioned D. expressed Question 13: Thanks to her father’s encouragement, she has made great ___ in her study. A. teams B. contribution C. progress D. development Question 14: I hate ___ newspaper; they are just full of gossip, scandal and lies! A. online B. magazine C. daily D. tabloid Question 15: Our grandfather has always favored Hellen against other children. She’s been the ___ of his eye. A. plum B. apple C. cherry D. grape Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions from 16 to 17. Question 16: Nutritious snacks provide an important contribution towards your child’s daily nutritional needs. A. Uncooked B. Inexpensive C. Unhealthy D. Unpacked Question 17: She relies on you so much that she tells you the whole story. You’d better keep it under your hat. A. mysterious B. unknown C. revealed D. confidential Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions from 18 to 19. Question 18: With the Artemis program, NASA will land the first woman and next man on the Moon by 2024, using innovative technologies to explore more of the lunar surface than ever before. A. crude B. latest C. rustic D. traditional Question 19: It is relatively easy for newcomers to pick off the most lucrative business and ignore the rest. A. apparently B. consequently C. comparatively D. obviously Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 20 to 24. Why is culture important and how does it answer the question “What is cultural identity?” Culture is the underlying (20) ___ of traditions and beliefs that help a person relate to the world around them. It is the basis for any superstitions they may have. It is the aversion to (21) ___ types of meat, or which days you can work on. Culture gives us a definite starting point when beginning to search for our roots. Knowing (22) ___ a person comes from will help to define how they look at their family obligations as well as how they celebrate important milestones in life. As a person has given up their cultural identity, they (23) ___ can identify themselves with the things that were once the most important thins in their lives. They lose direction. (24) ___ time goes by and
14. they continue to forget about their past and their natural traditions, their identity becomes less and less pronounced. Question 20: A. organization B. foundation C. institution D. principle Question 21: A. typical B. specific C. special D. especial Question 22: A. when B. where C. which D. how Question 23: A. no longer B. any more C. no more D. any longer Question 24: A. Until B. Because C. Although D. As Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 25 to 27. Question 25: Measles are cured without much difficulty nowadays. A. are B. without C. difficulty D. nowadays Question 26: Ecosystems regulate the climate, determine the composition of the atmosphere, make new soil, controlling diseases, and provide food. A. Ecosystems B. determine C. make D. controlling Question 27: Having a pet may make stressed times a little easier to get through. A. Having B. stressed C. a little D. get through Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 28 to 29. Question 28: A. attracts B. combines C. appeals D. informs Question 29: A. slight B. thin C. mild D. right Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34. The cost and benefits of global warming will vary greatly from area to area. For moderate climate change, the balance can be difficult to assess. But the larger the change in climate, the more negative the consequences will become. Global warming will probably make life harder, not easier, for most people. This is mainly because we have already built enormous infrastructure based on the climate we now have. People in some temperate zones may benefit from milder winters, more abundant rainfall, and expanding crop production zones. But people in other areas will suffer from increased heat waves, coastal erosion, rising sea level, more erratic rainfall, and droughts. The crops, natural vegetation, and domesticated and wild animals (including seafood) that sustain people in a given area may be unable to adapt to local or regional changes in climate. The ranges of diseases and insect pests that are limited by temperature may expand, if other environmental conditions are also favorable. In its summary report on the impacts of climate change, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change stated, “Taken as a whole, the range of published evidence indicates that the net damage costs of climate change are likely to be significant and to increase over time.” Question 30: What is the main idea of the passage? A. Reasons why low-lying areas are flooded. B. Reasons why global warming is a problem C. Solutions to global warming. D. Environment pollution is real Question 31: Which of the following is TRUE as the result of global warming? A. Life is easier for most people B. All people suffer from global warming C. All people benefit from global warming D. Life is more difficult for the majority of people Question 32: In paragraph 1, the word “this” refers to ___ A. harder life as a result of global warming B. easier life as a result of global warming C. flood in low-lying areas D. climate change on global scale Question 33: In paragraph 2, the word “erratic” is closest in meaning to ___. A. predictable B. unpredictable C. unchangeable D. changeable Question 34: What may happen to diseases and insect pests as a result of global warming? A. They will become extinct B. They will increase in number C. They will be under good control D. They will not harm our planet Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 35 to 37. Question 35: "Have you ever tried water skiing, Tom?" she asked. A. She asked Tom whether he had ever tried water skiing. B. She asked Tom if you had ever tried water skiing. C. She asked Tom had he ever tried water skiing. D. She asked Tom whether he has ever tried water skiing. Question 36: She isn't obliged to tell you the truth. A. She mustn't tell you the truth. B. You can't make her tell you the truth. C. She has no intention of telling you the truth. D. She needn't tell you the truth. Question 37: Sam is not as strong as Peter. A. Sam is the strongest. B. Both Sam and Peter are no strong. C. Peter is stronger than Sam. D. Neither Sam nor Peter is strong.
15. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 38 to 39. Question 38: A. offer B. behave C. apply D. provide Question 39: A. appointment B. preference C. government D. applicant Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges from 40 to 41. Question 40: Mike’s inviting Sue to go dancing. - Mike: “Shall we go dancing tonight?” - Sue: “___” A. Never mind B. I can’t agree with you C. Yes, let’s D. Not a little bit. Question 41: Mike and Susan are talking about changes in the modern society. - Mike: “Our living standards have been improved greatly.” - Susan: “___” A. No, it’s nice to say so. B. Thank you for saying so C. Sure. I couldn’t agree more. D. Yes, it’s nice of you to say so. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from 42 to 45. Question 42: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him. A. If only he had been able to finish his book. B. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. Question 43: Our life has been made easier thanks to smartphones. However, using smartphones often may cause some health problems. A. Since we use smartphones too often, they have made our life easier and caused our health problems to us. B. Smartphones have made our life easier, but they may cause some health problems if we often use them. C. Smartphone have not only made our life easier but also caused health problems to those who often use them. D. If it was not for the smart phones, our life wouldn’t be easier and there wouldn’t be no health problems. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. Language has enabled our species to formulate ideas and exchange information. One characteristic of language is that it is ever-evolving, changing to meet the needs of the people speaking it. Countries tend to adopt a national language that makes it easy for their inhabitants to communicate with one another as well as with outside entities. While this encourages the spread of certain language, it can also lead to the death of others. Consider the spread of Latin in ancient world as it pertains to English usage today. Latin was the language spoken in the Roman Empire, which included the Mediterranean and parts of Europe. Latin became so widespread that the languages of many modern European countries are based on the Latin language. However, despite its contribution to modern language, Latin in itself is no longer spoken as a primary language. The eventual demise of Latin occurred because, as it spread out over hundreds of years, it took on different dialects and pronunciations based on the different regions in which it was used. Rather than adopting Latin as a language, foreign people took the roots of Latin words and adapted them into their own languages. Hence, Latin’s popularity is one of the reasons why it ultimately fell out of use. As Latin did centuries ago, English is swiftly becoming the world’s most widely used language, spoken by people on the majority of the seven continents and declared the national language in at least thirty-four countries. As with Latin, the accent and tone may differ from country to country, but the basics of the vernacular have their foundation in Standard English. Linguistics predict that, like Latin, English will experience a immense spread and then subsequent break-up as the languages that got their start in English change into languages unique unto them. They feel that this can already be seen in areas such as the islands of Caribbean. While English is recognized as the national language of these countries, it has quite a different sound than English spoken everywhere else in the world. In other countries, English words have taken on completely different meanings from what they were originally. In the African country of Uganda, for example, natives use the word “extend” to mean “move over” or “get out of the way” rather than the more universally understood meanings of “lengthen” or “stretch”. People in the South American country of Guyana refer to “operation” when speaking of having an upset stomach or diarrhea. We can clearly see that English, like Latin, is being adapted to create other words or to take on new meanings. Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The future of English B. The similarities and differences between Latin and English C. The Latinization of English D. How Latin became a dead language Question 45: The word “pertains” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___. A. connects B. compares C. reflects D. relates
16. Question 46: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ___. A. Outside individuals are likely to choose a language similar to that of their neighbors. B. National languages are chosen by people who wish to communicate with neighboring countries C. Nations are more likely to choose a national language that is easy to their people to use. D. A country’s inhabitants will speak whichever language chosen by its leaders. Question 47: The word “vernacular” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___. A. accent B. verbal skills C. tone D. language Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of the popularity of Latin language? A. It led to the death of other contemporary languages. B. It actually resulted in the disappearance of the language. C. It contributed to the formation and development of current dialects. D. It gave birth to all of the Western languages. Question 49: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ___. A. other countries B. local words C. different meanings D. English words Question 50: The author implies that linguistics make a prediction about the future of English that ___. A. it continues spreading all over the world B. it contributes to building up a new language C. it will become a death language like Latin D. it will be no longer the national language in some countries THE END
17. SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA 2020 TỈNH YÊN BÁI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Read the passage and choose the correct word or phase that best fits each blank. Paper Paper, (1) ___ we use for homework, money, checks, books, letters, packaging, kites, paper dolls, wall paper, and braille books, is everywhere. We have paper towels, napkins, plates, cups, and handkerchiefs. Doctors put paper sheets on the examining table. Scientists use paper lab coats. Our knowledge is written on paper. Paper is made (2) ___ tress, rice, wheat, cotton, com, sugar cane, and other plants. There are about 7,000 kinds of paper. The Chinese (3) ___ paper in A.D. 105. They mixed the bark of a tree and rags with water, put a screen into the (4) ___, and lifted out a thin piece of wet paper. They dried the paper in the sun. The Chinese kept their secret of how to make paper until a war with Muslims in the ninth century. The Mayan Indians in Central America and Pacific Islanders also discovered how to make paper, (5) ___ their knowledge never spread to the rest of the world. Question 1: A. whom B. who C. whose D. which Question 2: A. with B. in C. by D. from Question 3: A. improved B. proposed C. discovered D. invented Question 4: A. mixture B. combination C. integration D. relationship Question 5: A. although B. since C. but D. however Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 6: He is advised to avoid eating fatty foods, having more vegetables and drink water. A. advised B. eating C. having D. drink Question 7: Have you ever read “Oliver Twist”, an interested novel written by Charles Dickens? A. read B. interested C. novel D. written Question 8: Tom works for a company which make electronic devices. A. works B. which C. make D. devices Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 9: “You have done your work very well today,” the teacher said to me. A. The teacher told me I had done my work well that day. B. The teacher told me I have done my work well today. C. The teacher told me I had done your work well that day. D. The teacher told me I had done his work well today. Question 10: Peter drives more carefully than Tom. A. Peter drives less carefully than Tom. B. Peter drives as carefully as Tom. C. Tom drives more carefully than Peter. D. Tom doesn’t drive as carefully as Peter. Question 11: You’d better go home now before the rain starts. A. You should go home now before the rain starts. B. You needn’t go home now before the rain starts. C. You mustn’t go home now before the rain starts. D. You would go home now before the rain starts. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The age of Exploration originated in Europe in the fifteenth century. At that time, European sailors started sailing to places far from their homes. First, they went down the coast of Africa. Later, they went into the Indian Ocean and made it to various ports in Asia. Near the end of the century, they sailed all the way to the Americas in the New World. Eventually, they managed to travel around the entire world. The first expedition that managed to circumnavigate the globe was led by Ferdinand Magellan. While Magellan was a Portuguese sailor, he sailed under the Spanish flag since his journey was funded by the king of Spain. When he departed on September 20, 1519, he had five ships and nearly 300 men. The expedition first moved west and crossed the Atlantic Ocean. After the ships reached the New World, they sailed south along the east coast of South America. Magellan was looking for a way to enter the Pacific Ocean. In November 1520, Magellan and his men finally discovered a passage to
18. the Pacific. During the search, though, Magellan lost one of his ships when it crashed into a beach and got wrecked. There was also a mutiny attempt by some of his crew members. With his remaining ships, Magellan sailed west across the Pacific Ocean. They traveled to the Mariana Islands, landed on Guam, and then sailed toward the Philippine Islands. During their journey across the Pacific, Magellan and his men became the first Europeans to see most of that part of the world. When the ships reached the Philippines, Magellan’s role in the journey came to an end. On an island there, Magellan’s men got into a dispute with some of the natives. There was a fight, and Magellan was killed in the middle of it. He died on April 27, 1521. By this time, Magellan’s crew had three ships, but they had only enough men to sail on two of them. So they burned one and sailed the other two south to Indonesia. There, they engaged in trade with the natives, so they acquired some spices to take back to Europe. However, the Portuguese were at war with Spain at that time, so one ship was captured by them. The last remaining ships crossed the Indian Ocean. It rounded Africa and sailed north to Spain. It arrived home on September 6, 1522. Only eighteen of the original crew made it home alive. Question 12: What is the passage mainly about? A. The danger of travelling in the past B. The first trip around the world C. The life of Ferdinand Magellan D. The European Age of Exploration Question 13: Which is NOT mentioned as a place that Europeans visited during the Age of Exploration? A. America B. Australia C. Asia D. Africa Question 14: What does the author point out by writing that the crew engaged in trade? A. They decided to get married B. They found more crew members C. They got rid of some possessions D. They bought and sold items Question 15: According to the passage, what happened to Magellan’s expedition while his ships were near South America? A. The crew decided to sail back home B. They encountered lots of bad weather C. A ship was lost by the expedition D. They were attacked by natives Question 16: When did Magellan discover a passage to the Pacific? A. In 1522 B. In 1519 C. In 1521 D. In 1520 Question 17: The word “circumnavigate” is closest in meaning to ___. A. map B. go round C. learn about D. explore Question 18: the word “them” refers to ___. A. Magellan’s crew B. the Portuguese C. the natives D. some spices Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19: The ceasefire will only provide a temporary solution to the crisis. A. soak B. guess C.complicated D. permanent Question 20: We had a whale of a time as everything was quite fantastic. A. had a little time to play B. felt happy C. felt disappointed D. had a lot of time to play Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 21: A. dance B. make C. face D. hate Question 22: A. books B. maps C. dogs D. cats Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 23: Mike is talking to Ann at home. - Mike: “Would you mind turning down the TV? I’m working.” - Ann: “___” A. Thank you. I’m pleased. B. No, I wouldn’t be working. C. Yes, I’m working, too. D. Not at all. I’ll do it now. Question 24: John and Laura are talking about plastic bags. - John: “Do you think that we should limit the use of plastic bags to protect our environment?” - Laura: “___” A. Of course not, you bet! B. Yes, it’s an absurd idea. C. Well, that’s very surprising. D. There is no doubt about it.
19. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 25: They began their work. The light failed immediately. A. But for the light failed, they would have begun their work. B. Only after they began their work the light failed. C. Hardly had they begun their work than the light failed. D. No sooner had they begun their work than the light failed. Question 26: You can go out with your friends. Make sure you come back home before midnight. A. You can’t go out with your friends in case you come back home before midnight. B. You can go out with your friends as long as you come back home before midnight. C. You can go out with your friends unless you come back home before midnight. D. You can’t go out with your friends if you come back home before midnight. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 27: He will take the dog out for a walk ___ dinner. A. until he finished B. before he had finished C. as soon as he finishes D. when he was finishing Question 28: He got into trouble when he refused ___ his briefcase for the customs officer. A. being opened B. open C. to open D. opening Question 29: If you want to ___ your pronunciation, you should listen to the radio. A. improved B. improvement C. improve D. improving Question 30: You mother doesn’t like that big present, ___? A. did she B. does she C. doesn’t she D. didn’t she Question 31: Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a ___ day. A. rainy B. snowy C. foggy D. windy Question 32: My hobby is watching the work ___ by Shakespeare in the 20th century. A. written B. to write C. is written D. writing Question 33: I haven’t met him again since we ___ school ten years ago. A. had left B. leave C. left D. have left Question 34: Tommy left high school ___ the age of seventeen. A. in B. of C. on D. at Question 35: She always ___ a fuss of her naughty boys. A. makes B. takes C. gets D. does Question 36: The average ___ watches television for about 15 hours a week. A. onlooker B. viewer C. spectator D. observer Question 37: John would be taking a great risk if he ___ his money in that business now. A. would invest B. invests C. had invested D. invested Question 38: She didn’t go to the circus with Betty ___ she had a bad cold. A. although B. because of C. in spite of D. because Question 39: Voicing your ___ about examinations on a live TV or radio discussion program is not as easy as it sounds. A. agreement B. hope C. problem D. opinion Question 40: As the plane ___, my kids held my hands tightly. A. took up B. took off C. went on D. set off Question 41: On our trip to Spain, we crossed ___ Atlantic Ocean. A. a B. an C. O (no article) D. the Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 42: A. household B. career C. pressure D. college Question 43: A. electric B. powerful C. commercial D. decisive Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 44: The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place. A. participated B. impressed C. defended D. organized Question 45: Tony decided to participate in an English-speaking contest for high school students this summer. A. take part in B. compete C. enter D. play
20. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions. Sleep is very important. A person who does not sleep dies faster than a person who does not eat. We spend about a third of our lives in sleep. That’s about 121 days a year! How much sleep do we need? We are all different. A baby needs 16 hours of sleep every day. Children 6 to 12 years old need an average of 10 to 12 hours of sleep. Teenagers need 9 to 10 hours of sleep. An adult needs an average of 7 to 8 hours a night. There are some people who need only 3 hours of sleep. Others need 10 hours of sleep. After the age of 50, the average sleep time goes down to 6.5 hours a night. We need less sleep as we get older. About one in three American has a problem with sleep. Many of these people cannot fall asleep. The name of this problem is insomnia. Some people say, “I didn’t sleep all night.” But that’s not really true. They might sleep lightly and wake up several times. In the morning they only remember the times they were awake, so they think they were awake all night. This is not a new problem. Many famous people in history had insomnia. Some of these people had special ideas to make them sleep. Benjamin Franklin had four beds. He moved from one to another to fall asleep. Mark Twain had a different way. He lay on his side across the end of his bed. Question 46: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. A person who does not sleep dies more quickly than a person who does not eat. B. Some people might sleep lightly and wake up several times. C. No famous people in history had insomnia. D. The older we get, the less sleep we need. Question 47: What would be the best title for the passage? A. Go to sleep! B. Sleep more! C. Sleep time and its problems D. Celebrities and Sleep Question 48: What does the word “insomnia” mean in this passage? A. Slow sleep B. Sleep with dreams C. Good sleep D. No sleep Question 49: The word “He” in the last paragraph refers to ___. A. Benjamin Franklin B. A famous people C. Mark Twain D. a person with insomnia Question 50: If you are thirteen years old, you need at least ___ hours of sleep. A. 16 B. 9 C. 7 D. 12 THE END
21. SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA 2020 TỈNH VĨNH PHÚC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5. 21st century teachers need to serve as a guide or mentor for their students, not as the all- knowing sage providing them with everything they need. Nowadays, with so (1) ___ access to resources of all kinds, children invariably know more than teachers on different topics, step ahead of the technology. Teachers need to be empowered as facilitators for learning, so that they can empower their students in (2) ___. This shift is great news for teachers. Instead of struggling to give kids all the information in areas (3) ___they know little about, teachers can support students as they make their own steps into different fields. It’s about preparing them to go beyond their seniors, ensuring they have the skills to do it, and assisting them along the way. (4) ___, teachers need to be forward-thinking, curious and flexible. They must be learners: learning new teaching methods, and learning alongside their students. Simply asking questions like “What will my students need dozens of years from now?” or “How can I help give them those skills?” can change teachers' (5) ___, make them a leader, and bring about changes in the classroom, school and community. Question 1: A. little B. much C. many D. few Question 2: A. line B. sight C. use D. turn Question 3: A. whom B. what C. where D. that Question 4: A. For instance B. Otherwise C. In practice D. Therefore Question 5: A. mindset B. knowledge C. judgement D. prejudice Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 6: A. phones B. maintains C. knocks D. stays Question 7: A. idiom B. idle C. ideal D. item Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 8 to 12. A major American bank is being sued by the US authorities for allegedly discriminating against its female employees. It has been alleged that women in the firm do not have as good promotion prospects as the men. Sexism in the workplace is against the law in America and in many other countries. However, there are still obstacles in many firms which prevent women from achieving the promotion that their talents and qualifications deserve. Many women are promoted quite rapidly through the junior jobs in a firm, but face the glass ceiling, when they apply for any of the most senior posts. Many women blame this situation on the old-boy network. Others see it as evidence that many men are resistant to change and are still chauvinists at heart, while some may feel that failure to promote women to top jobs is a result of feelings of insecurity in the men who are making the appointments. Perhaps they are afraid of letting women become too powerful. Before the rise of the women’s movement there were no such things as equal rights or equal opportunities for women. For the most part, women were expected to get married and then be responsible for childcare and for carrying out all the household tasks. If they worked, it was probably in a part time, often rather menial job. Feminist saw this as sexism and a waste of women’s talents, and set out to change things. Although some people, women as well as men, now do not have a high regard for feminism, women owe to feminists many of the improvements in their work situation. Without them, there would be no positive discrimination, no job-sharing and no parity with men in the workplace. Question 8: What could be the best title of the passage? A. Gender discrimination B. Sex Equality C. Jobs for Women D. Men and Women Question 9: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for sexism at the workplace? A. Women’s weakness B. Male chauvinism C. The old-boy network D. Men’s feeling of insecurity Question 10: The pronoun “them” in the passage refers to ___. A. women B. feminists C. men D. people
22. Question 11: The word “parity” as used in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ___. A. relationship B. competition C. equality D. responsibility Question 12: From the information in paragraph 2, it is most likely that ___. A. all men and women show their respect to feminism. B. women’s current tasks include taking care of children and doing housework. C. women in the past could not do any jobs whether they were part-time or menial. D. since the women’s liberation movement, women have equal opportunities. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 13: The director decided to raise the worker’s wages. He didn’t want them to leave. A. The director decided to raise the worker’s wages though he wanted them to leave. B. The director decided to raise the worker’s wages because he didn’t want them to leave. C. The director decided to raise the worker’s wages so that he didn’t want them to leave. D. The director decided to raise the worker’s wages in order not to want them to leave. Question 14: Brasilia is the capital of Brazil. It was officially inaugurated in 1960. A. Brasilia was officially inaugurated in 1960 is the capital of Brazil. B. Brasilia, officially inaugurated in 1960, is the capital of Brazil. C. Brasilia which is the capital of Brazil was officially inaugurated in 1960. D. Brasilia is the capital of Brazil to be officially inaugurated in 1960. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 15: A. tropical B. habitat C. predator D. organic Question 16: A. global B. wildlife C. protect D. litter Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 17: The thief broke into the shop and stole goods worthy of $5,000. A. the B. into C. worthy of D. stole Question 18: An understanding of engineering theories and problems are possible until basic arithmetic is fully mastered. A. theories B. is C. mastered D. are Question 19: Sleeping, resting, and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold. A. juice B. Sleeping C. the best ways D. to drink Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 20: Professor Alex insisted that every student ___ their report by Friday. A. had finished B. finished C. finish D. finishes Question 21: ___ with the board, I had reviewed all the proposals for the meeting again. A. Until I was meeting B. Before I met C. When I meet D. After I have met Question 22: No wonder she’s coughing; she smoked like a ___. A. fire B. chimney C. pipe D. cigarette Question 23: At companies like Facebook, Amazon, Apple, Netflix and Google, they help to develop long term plans and digital ___. A. interactions B. interacts C. interactive D. interactional Question 24: Jane got into trouble when he refused ___ his briefcase for the custom office. A. being open B. open C. to open D. opening Question 25: She has just bought a new bicycle, ___? A. hasn’t it B. has she C. hasn’t she D. has it Question 26: We had some problems when we ___ the hotel. They had reserved the room under the wrong name. A. came in B. applied for C. stayed at D. checked into Question 27: He agreed with my opinion that we should not be fully satisfied ___ what we had. A. about B. of C. with D. from Question 28: The ozone layer is becoming depleted; ___, there are more cases of skin cancer every year. A. on the other hand B. therefore C. however D. in contrast
23. Question 29: He has changed his mind again? I wish he’d at least be ___. A. constant B. consistent C. compatible D. congenial Question 30: They were awaiting official ___ of the news they had heard from a friend. A. confirmation B. announcement C. statement D. recommendation Question 31: I think everyone wants to make friends with John. He is ___ honest person. A. an B. the C. O D. a Question 32: You’d better not place a bet on Stallion. In my opinion, the horse doesn’t ___ a chance of winning the race. A. win B. play C. rise D. stand Question 33: If I ___ to the store later, I’ll get you some milk. A. was going B. will go C. go D. went Question 34: I ___ in this house since I graduated from university. A. lived B. have lived C. was living D. live Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 41. Belgium is a very old country, with a fascinating mixture of old customs and modern laws. Belgium weddings may be performed as a civil ceremony or as a religious ceremony. Traditionally, when a couple in Belgium wishes to announce their marriage, the wedding invitations are printed on two sheets of paper, one from the bride's family and one sheet from the groom's family. These wedding invitations symbolize the union of the two families and the partnership of the new union. An ancient Belgium custom that is designed to unite the two families calls for the bride to stop as she walks up the isle and to hand her mother a single flower. The two then embrace. Then, during the recessional, the bride and groom walk to the groom's mother and the new bride hands her new mother-in-law a single flower and the two of them embrace, symbolizing the bride's acceptance of her new mother. One of the most important and enduring traditions of the Belgium wedding is for the bride to carry a specially embroidered handkerchief that has her name embroidered on it. After the wedding this handkerchief is framed and hung on the wall in a place of honor. When the next female member of the bride's family is to be wed, the handkerchief is removed from its frame, the new bride's name is embroidered onto it, and it is passed down. The wedding handkerchief is passed from generation to generation, and is considered an important family heirloom. During the wedding mass, the bride and the groom are enthroned in two large chairs placed near the altar, symbolizing that on this day and in this place they are the king and the queen. At the conclusion of the ceremony, the groom slips the wedding ring onto the third finger of his bride's left hand. The ring, being an endless circle, symbolizes never-ending love, and the third finger of the left hand is believed to hold the vein that travels to the heart, symbolizing love. At the conclusion of the ceremony, the bride and groom share their first kiss as husband and wife. The kiss is considered a symbolic act of sharing each other's spirit as the couple each breathes in a portion of their new mate's soul. The bridesmaids traditionally take up a collection of coins and as the bride and groom exit the church, the bridesmaids toss the coins to the poor outside the church. Giving gifts of money to the poor helps to insure prosperity for the new bride and groom. Following the wedding the bride and groom are off on their honeymoon. In ancient times the honeymoon, which was celebrated by the drinking of mead, or honey wine, would last 28 days, one complete cycle of the moon. This was to make sure that the bride's family did not try to steal their daughter back from her new husband. (Adapted from Question 35: Which of the following could be the best title of this passage? A. Belgium's wedding customs and traditions B. Belgium's wedding ceremony C. The bride's and groom's traditional activities in their wedding day D. The differences between an ancient wedding and a modern one in Belgium Question 36: What does the word "them" in the third paragraph refer to? A. the groom and his mother-in-law B. the bride and the groom C. the bride and her mother D. the bride and her mother-in-law Question 37: The following is true about Belgium's wedding, EXCEPT ___. A. The weddings in Belgium are not only a civil event but also a religious one B. The bride often hugs her mother-in-law before embracing her mother
24. C. Each mother of the couple is given a single flower in their children's wedding D. The wedding invitations are the symbol of both the bride's and the groom's families Question 38: From the information in paragraph 4, it appears that the wedding handkerchief ___. A. is embroidered in most important occasions in Belgium B. is only replaced by another person in their house C. is prepared for the bride by her mother before the wedding D. is highly appreciated in the home of Belgian people Question 39: The word "heirloom" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___. A. reward B. inheritance C. pride D. dowry Question 40: According to paragraph 5, what is TRUE about the wedding ring? A. The groom wears the ring for his mate at the beginning of the ceremony. B. It is worn onto the third finger of the bride's right hand. C. The ring represents the boundless love of the couple. D. The ring is presented by the queen and the king of their country. Question 41: The word "insure" in the paragraph 6 could be best replaced by ___. A. guarantee B. express C. determine D. affirm Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 42: Hoa: “Would you mind closing the door?” Hung: “___” A. Yes, I do. You can close it. B. Don’t worry. Go ahead! C. Yes, of course. Are you tired? D. No, not at all. I’ll do it now. Question 43: Tim: “Wow! You look terrific in that new dress!” Lisa: “___” A. Why dare you say so? B. Oh, what a pity! C. I’m afraid so! D. Thank you. I’m glad you think so. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 44: Once cockroaches get into a building, it is very difficult to exterminate them. A. bear B. kill C. ratify D. create Question 45: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world. A. number B. conservation C. variety D. changes Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 46: For reasons of personal safety, the informant wishes to remain anonymous. A. known B. unnamed C. unidentified D. hidden Question 47: The nominating committee always meet behind close doors, lest its deliberations become known prematurely. A. privately B. dangerously C. publicly D. safely Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 48: Lee talks to people more politely than Ben. A. Ben doesn’t talk to people less politely than Lee. B. Ben doesn’t talk to people more politely than Lee. C. Ben doesn’t talk to people polite as Lee. D. Ben doesn’t talk to people as politely as Lee. Question 49: “You have not done your homework well,” said the teacher to me. A. The teacher told me I hadn’t done my homework well. B. The teacher told me I hadn’t done your homework well. C. The teacher told me I hadn’t done his homework well. D. The teacher told me I haven’t done my homework well. Question 50: I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Pike you saw because he is in London. A. It can’t have been Mr. Pike you saw because he is in London. B. It shouldn’t be Mr. Pike you saw because he is in London. C. It mustn’t have been Mr. Pike you saw because he is in London. D. It might not be Mr. Pike you saw because he is in London.
25. SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA 2020 NGHỆ AN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LIÊN TRƯỜNG THPT Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (ĐỀ LẺ) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. cats B. tapes C. rides D. cooks Question 2: A. tiny B. device C. krill D. migrate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. consult B. happen C. remain D. secure Question 4: A. computer B. practical C. scholarship D. bachelor Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: This is what we need for our new house, ___ ? A. is it B. isn’t this C. isn’t it D. don’t we Question 6: Frank is a freshman at ___ University of Liverpool. A. the B. a C. an D. ∅(no article) Question 7: Jenny reminds me ___ that famous actress we saw on television last night. A. about B. to C. of D. with Question 8: I remember ___ you somewhere but I’m sorry I forget your name. A. meet B. meeting C. to meet D. met Question 9: We’ll have to go without John if he ___ soon. A. won’t arrive B. will arrive C. arrives D. doesn’t arrive Question 10: - "How are you feeling?" - "I've been better since the doctor ___." A. has came B. will come C. had come D. came Question 11: Don’t be late for the job interview, ___ the employer will think you are a disorganised person. A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so Question 12: By the time you come here tomorrow, the work ___. A. will have been finishing B. will be finishing C. will have been finished D. will be finished Question 13: I live in a pleasant room ___ a big vegetable garden. A. to overlook B. overlooked C. which overlooking D. overlooking Question 14: Although the professor gave ___ directions for the research paper, I was still confused. A. define B. definite C. definitely D. definition Question 15: “Play Date” was not a very popular song when it was first recorded, but now it's starting to ___. A. go on B. keep on C. stay on D. catch on Question 16: She has ___ an important distinction between mental and physical illnesses. A. drawn B. planned C. done D. taken Question 17: UNICEF supports and funds for the most disadvantaged children all over the world. A. presents B. assists C. offers D. provides Question 18: We have made careful preparations to welcome the ___ from 40 countries. A. acquaintances B. attendants C. delegates D. hosts Question 19: A good stereo system doesn't have to cost ___ and ___. You can find one at a reasonable price. A. an arm - a leg B. a hand - a leg C. a finger - a toe D. a hand - a foot Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: The cultural life of New Orleans is a synthesis of contributions by both the black and the white. A. product B. demonstration C. reflection D. combination Question 21: The climate change is said to be the result of not only natural causes but also human activities. Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming alarmingly rapid. A. disapprovingly B. disappointingly C. surprisingly D. worryingly
26. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Those heavy users of Facebook lifestyle apps will soon be able to share more information with their friends that will gain more engagement. A. joyfulness B. disinterest C. pleasure D. assignation Question 23: I’ve worked with her for donkey’s years but I still don’t know how to use this photocopier. A. for a short time B. from time to time C. from the beginning D. for good and all Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Mrs Brown and Mr Beckham are talking in the dining-room. - Mrs Brown: “Make yourself at home.” - Mr Beckham: “___” A. It doesn’t matter. B. That’s OK. Don’t worry! C. You can come any time. D. It’s very kind of you. Thanks. Question 25: Mary is talking to a passenger in front of her. - Mary: “Would you mind putting my case on the rack?” - The passenger: “___” A. Not at all. There you are. B. Yes. It’s right. C. It’s very kind of you to say so. D. Whatever you want! Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. MENTORING Many adults in America and increasing numbers elsewhere take part in mentoring schemes. A mentor is an adult who provides support and friendship to a young person. There are (26)___ different ways of mentoring: passing on skills, sharing experiences, offering guidance. Sometimes the most helpful thing is just to listen. Mentoring is open to any body - no particular (27) ___ experience is required, just a desire to make a difference to the life of a young person (28) ___ needs help. This may seem a difficult thing at first, but many people find they have a real talent for it. The support of a mentor can play an important role in a child’s development and can often make up for a lack of guidance in a young person’s life. It can also improve young people’s attitude towards society and build up their confidence in dealing with life challenges. For the mentor, it can be incredibly rewarding to know that they have had a significant (29) ___ on a child and helped to give them the best possible chance in life. (30) ___, it is not only adults who are capable of taking on this role. There is now an increasing demand for teenagers to mentor younger children, for example by helping them with reading or other school work. Question 26: A. number B. numerate C. numerous D. numerable Question 27: A. trained B. expert C. professional D. skilled Question 28: A. whose B. what C. whom D. who Question 29: A. influence B. result C. factor D. change Question 30: A. Likewise B. Indeed C. Meanwhile D. Instead Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. A pioneer leader for women’s rights, Susan Anthony became one of the leading women reformers of the 19th century. In Rochester, New York, she began her first public crusade on behalf of temperance, the habit of not drinking alcohol. The temperance movement dealt with the abuses of women and children that suffered from alcoholic husbands. Also, she worked tirelessly against slavery and for women’s rights. Anthony helped write the history of woman suffrage. At the time Anthony lived, women did not have the right to vote. Because she voted in the 1872 election, a US official arrested Anthony. She hoped to prove that women had the legal right to vote under the provisions of the 14th and 15th Amendments to the Constitution. At her trial, a hostile federal judge found her guilty and fined her $100, which she refused to pay. Anthony did not work alone. She worked with reformers of women’s rights such as Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Amelia Bloomer. Susan worked for the American Anti-Slavery Society with Frederick Douglas, a fugitive slave and black abolitionist.
27. On July 2nd 1979, the US Mint honored her by issuing the Susan Anthony dollar coin. Although Anthony did not live to see the fruits of her efforts, the establishment of the 19th Amendment is indebted to her efforts, according to US historians. Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage? A. Slavery was one of Susan Anthony’s causes. B. Susan Anthony did not accept the use of alcohol. C. Susan Anthony never gave up her struggle for all people’s freedom. D. Reformers do not always see the results of their efforts. Question 32: The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to ___. A. temperance movement B. women and children C. public crusade D. women reformers Question 33: According to the passage, Anthony advocated all of the following statements EXCEP ___. A. slavery should be abolished. B. women are citizens and should have the right to vote C. employers should provide childcare for female employees D. alcohol should be prohibited because of the abuse it causes Question 34: In which of the following ways did the US Mint honor her life’s work? A. The Susan Anthony stamp was issued. B. The Susan Anthony dollar coin was issued. C. The Susan Anthony Memorial Park was built. D. Susan Anthony dolls were created. Question 35: The word “indebted” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___. A. meaningful B. respectful C. worshipful D. grateful Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In December 2019, a number of pneumonia cases were reported in Wuhan, eastern China. The pneumonia is associated with a new type of coronavirus. This virus has now spread to other cities in China. There have also been cases in other countries around the world. Coronaviruses get their names because they look like crowns under the microscope. This group of viruses causes diseases in humans and other animals, including pigs and chickens. It is thought that the new coronavirus outbreak started in a market in Wuhan, which sold meat and live animals. Scientists say that the virus is not closely related to any human virus currently known. The World Health Organization has told countries around the world to track respiratory infections in their populations. There is currently no vaccination against the corona virus. The Wuhan coronavirus outbreak is similar to the 2002-03 epidemic of SARS coronavirus. This outbreak, which started in south China, spread to 37 countries, causing 8,098 people to become ill and 774 to die. Nearly 10% of people who were infected with SARS died. The deadly nature of the disease, the frequent human-to-human spread, and infection of hospital staff contributed to the seriousness of the outbreak. SARS was traced to several types of wild animals, which were sold as food in markets. The infected animals had no symptoms. The outbreak was stopped by closing markets and killing animals, and by treating and isolating patients. SARS has not been seen since 2003 and it is thought that the virus has now disappeared. There are seven coronaviruses known to infect people, including the new Wuhan coronavirus and SARS. Other human coronaviruses are those that cause the common cold, as well as the deadly MERS virus. MERS is a common cold virus that often jumps from camels to humans in the Middle East. It can cause severe pneumonia in people and spread from person to person. MERS was identified in 2012 and continues to be a significant problem in the Middle East. Nearly 2,500 cases of MERS have been identified, causing 858 deaths. How the new Wuhan coronavirus came to be in humans, and how closely it resembled the SARS outbreak will be a focus of ongoing research. Outbreaks of new viruses, such as the Wuhan coronavirus, are a reminder of the need to invest in research in virus biology and evolution, how viruses infect and interact with human cells, and most importantly, to identify safe and effective drugs to treat or vaccines to prevent serious disease. Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? A. Coronavirus - the situation today B. Coronavirus - lessons from the past C. Coronavirus - what will future bring about? D. Coronavirus - success and failure