Tổng hợp đề thi HSG tiếng Anh 12 (Kèm đáp án)

Nội dung text: Tổng hợp đề thi HSG tiếng Anh 12 (Kèm đáp án)

1. ĐỀ SỐ 1 SECTION I: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (9 points) Part 1: Choose ONE word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D to indicate your answer. (4 points) 1. They ___ him of having stolen the car. A. blamed B. accused C. complained D. convicted 2. I was wearing a heavy raincoat to ___ myself from the cold. A. conceal B. hide C. protect D. wrap 3. The new discovery was a major ___ for research workers. A. breakthrough B. break-down C. breakout D. break-in 4. The film lasted every three hours with ___ of 15 minutes between part one and part two. A. a pause B. an interruption C. an interval D. a stop 5. The nurse ___ in the hospital helped the patient come round. A. on alarm B. on duty C. in service D. in shift 6. Buses are not very ___. Sometimes, they come every five minutes, then other times you have to wait for half an hour. A. in time B. on time C. punctual D. timely 7. The ___ is the official who makes sure the rules are followed in tennis. A. umpire B. instructor C. referee D. guide 8. Do you have a non-smoking room with two beds ___ for next Friday and Saturday? A. empty B. available C. vacant D. ready 9. Workers demanded pay rises to take account of the ___ of inflation. A. percent B. percentage C. estimate D. rate 10. After his business failed, Mr. Johnson was declared ___ by the court. A. penniless B. profitless C. bankrupt D. lost 11. Don’t ___ ! I haven’t finished explaining yet! A. hang up B. hold on C. hang on D. call up 12. It ___ out that the mayor had bribed several councilors to vote. A. resulted B. pointed C. broke D. turned 13. It’s difficult to tell identical twins___. A. on B. out C. apart D. over 14. No sooner had we started the picnic ___ the rain began pouring down! A. than B. when C. that D. and 15. ___ you try, you can never get them all right. A. How hard B. However hard C. For as hard as D. So hard as 16. He had an excellent grade in his examination ___ the fact that he hadn't worked particularly hard. A. in spite of B. although C. because of D. on account of
2. 17. The child was told to ___ for being rude to his uncle. A. excuse B. apologize C. confess D. pardon 18. She ___ her neighbor’s children for the broken window. A. blamed B. accused C. complained D. convicted 19. Both drivers were ___ in the accident and were taken to hospital. A. damaged B. beaten C. injured D. wounded 20. Mary’s broken arm was so ___ that she burst into tears. A. aching B. painful C. sharp D. hurt Part 2: Supply the correct form of verbs in the blank. (2 points) 1. After 3 days of rain, I’m glad that the sun (shine) ___ again. 2. I (make) ___ cakes. That’s why my hands are all covered with flour. 3. When you (get) ___ married? – Next Sunday. 4. He (break) ___ his leg yesterday as he (repair) ___ the roof. 5. My sister (lose) ___ her hat and she (look) ___ for it until now. 6. Faternah looked down to discover a snake at her feet. When she saw it, she (scream) ___. 7. By the time Peter finally graduated from school, he (attend) ___ seven different schools because his parents moved frequently. 8. Until you learn to relax more, you (not improve) ___ your ability to speak English. Answers 1. ___ 5. ___ 2. ___ ___ 3. ___ 6. ___ 4. ___ 7. ___ ___ 8. ___ Part 3. Supply the correct form of the word to fill in the blank. (2 points) Healthy eating is (1) ___ the key to general well-being. Our bodies are DOUBT made up of what we eat, so our (2) ___ cannot possibly escape the FIT effects of bad diet and neither can our (3) ___ . Sweets, chocolate and VITAL cake are fine in (4) ___ , but trouble arises when people just cannot MODERATE leave them alone, (5) ___ eating every possibly sticky item that comes GREED TREAT
3. their way. (6) ___ is available for serious problems but (7) ___ AVOID is normally better than cure. CHOOSE Make a careful (8) ___ when it comes to desserts, and favour cafes SELECT that offer a good (9) ___ of fruit to round off a meal. A (10)___ REDUCE in your sugar intake may well hurt at first but you will feel better for it. Answers 1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___ Part 4: Circle an underlined word or phrase that needs correction. (1 point) 1. He looks remarkable like his father. A B C D 2. The bridge was hitting by a large ship during a sudden storm last week. A B C D 3. What does she often have for the lunch? A B C D 4. The director doesn’t allow smoke in this office. A B C D 5. In the early days of their development, cars used a great numbers of fuel. A B C D SECTION II. READING COMPREHENSION (4,4 points) Part 1: Read the following passage then decide which is the best choice to the statement. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (1,4 points) The Garbage Problem Garbage is a big problem all over the world. People buy and use a lot of things nowadays. After a while, they throw them away in the garbage bin. All the garbage is later thrown away or dumped outside the city. These places are called landfill sites. In many cities, landfill sites are now full. About one third of all the garbage is made of paper. Another third of the garbage is a mix of glass, metal, plastic, and wood. The final third comes from food scraps. These are remains of food that are now not eaten anymore. Food scraps are not a big garbage problem for the environment. Our natural world can get rid of food scraps. Insects and bacteria eat food scraps and make them go away. But this does not happen with other materials. Plastic is very toxic to the environment. It poisons the earth and the water. We use plastic for many things such as combs or pens. Also, when we buy something from the supermarket, we get a plastic bag. As soon as we get home, we throw the bag away. Plastic is also used to make Styrofoam. All take-out coffee cups and fast-food are made of Styrofoam. When we buy coffee and drink it on the street, we throw that cup away too. Other garbage we throw away is metal. The cans for soft drinks or beer are made of aluminum. Aluminum is toxic too. The paper and wood we throw away are not toxic. But we have to cut down many trees every
4. year to make paper and wood. Our environment suffers when there are no forests around. The air is less fresh, and the earth dries up. With no water in the earth, plants cannot grow. Solutions to the garbage problem We have to manage our waste and garbage better. If we throw away so many things, soon we will have no place to dump them. The best thing to do is to reduce the amount of garbage. If we use less, we throw away less. For instance, we can buy food in big boxes and packages. Then we throw away only one box every month or so. Otherwise, we throw away many small boxes or cans every day. Similarly, we can reuse a lot of packaging. For example, we do not have to buy take-out coffee in Styrofoam cups. We can bring our own cup from home and fill it with fresh coffee. We also do not have to take the plastic bags from the supermarket. We can bring our own cloth bag from home instead. When we pack lunch, it is better to use a lunch box than a paper bag. Instead of paper plates, we can use real plates. We can clean up with a dishtowel, not a paper towel. We can use a compost bin for food scraps. In this way, the food gets back into the earth. It does not get mixed up with the regular garbage. Finally, all paper, glass and metal we do use, we can recycle. In many countries, there are now recycling programs. In Germany, for example, people separate all glass bottles by color. Then they put the bottles into special bins that are on the street. The city collects the glass, cleans it, and reuses it. As well, in most countries, people recycle newspapers and cardboard. It is easy and efficient. 1. What is the topic word of the first paragraph? A. Throw away B. Garbage C. Plastic D. Environment 2. What is the main idea of the second passage? A. People must deal with garbage better. B. People should reuse things. C. People should recycle more. D. People should reduce their waste. 3. Why does the author say that garbage is a big problem? A. Because people buy too many things. B. Because people throw away everything they buy. C. Because not all cities have landfill sites. D. Because landfill sites get fewer and fewer. 4. What do people throw away? A. Paper and wood B. Plastic, glass and metal. C. Food scraps. D. All of the above. 5. Why does the author mention Germany at the end of the reading passage? A. To suggest that recycling is the best solution to the garbage problem. B. To offer additional advice about how to handle waste. C. To criticize countries that do not have a recycling program. D. To demonstrate that recycling works. 6. Why should people not throw away Styrofoam cups? A. Because they are toxic to the environment. B. Because they can reuse them again at home. C. Because they can buy take-out coffee in them. D. Because they can fill them again with fresh coffee.
5. 7. What advice does the author give about reusing waste? A. We should drink take-out coffee. B. We should use our own bags, cups and plates. C. We should throw away food into the landfill sites. D. We should clean glasses ourselves and recycle them. Part 2: Read the passage and choose one word or phrase that best fits each space (3 points) What kind of music do you (1) ___ ? Some people like going to (2) ___ concerts, and listening to (3) ___ . The (4) ___ wear very formal clothes, and the (5) ___ is silent until the end of the (6) ___. Perhaps, you are a rock music (7) ___ . Rock concerts are often held at football (8) ___ or in parks. (9) ___ of the audience dance to the music, or sing the songs. (10) ___ music is (11) ___ at wedding and parties in many countries, and some people (12) ___ their own music at home. Nowadays, we (13) ___ music in shops and lifts, and many people (14) ___ their own music with them, or even (15) ___ to music when they study. Music is everywhere! 1. A. listen B. enjoy C. have D. preferring 2. A. classic B. classics C. classical D. classified 3. A. a group B. an orchestra C. a band D. a record 4. A. musicians B. actors C. musicals D. instruments 5. A. spectators B. people C. guests D. audience 6. A. happening B. action C. music D. performance 7. A. fan B. enthusiasm C. reader D. friend 8. A. matches B. grounds C. pitches D. pools 9. A. Members B. Selections C. Persons D. Those 10. A. Historical B. Nation C. Traditional D. Ancient 11. A. acted B. formed C. done D. played 12. A. do B. get C. make D. take 13. A. listen B. hear C. perform D. understand 14. A. carry B. wear C. lift D. play 15. A. hear B. have C. follow D. listen SECTION III: WRITING (5 points) Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it beginning with the words given. (2 points)
6. 1. Despite Jack’s strange clothes, everybody ignored him. Nobody took ___ 2. It was more of a business arrangement than a marriage. It was not ___ 3. You must not communicate in any way with anyone involved in this case. You must have ___ 4. His father made him study Latin at the age of three. At the age of three, he ___ 5. I would prefer you to pay in cash. I’d rather ___ 6. Try as I might, I couldn’t understand the code. No matter ___ 7. Professor Helsing knows everything about this menu script. There is ___ 8. If you trade in your existing answer phone, we will reduce the price of a new one by $100. Trade ___ 9. Norman was sorry because he had lost his temper. Norman regretted ___ 10. Although I respect the law, I cannot accept the court’s decision. Much ___ Part 2: Write a passage of about 150 words about a person that you love or admire most. (3 points) ___The end___
7. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH TUYÊN QUANG LỚP 12 THPT MÔN: TIẾNG ANH SECTION I: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (9 points) Part 1: (4 points): Each correct answer 0,2 point. 1. B 6. C 11. A 16. A 2. C 7. A 12. D 17. B 3. A 8. B 13. C 18. A 4. C 9. D 14. A 19. C 5. B 10. C 15. B 20. B Part 2: (2 points): Each correct answer 0,1 point. 1. is shining 5. has lost 2. have been making has been looking 3. are you getting 6. screamed (are you going to get) 7. had attended 4. broke 8. won’t improve was repairing Part 3: (2 points): Each correct answer 0,2 point. 1. undoubtedly 2. fitness 3. vitality 4. moderation 5. greedily 6. treatment 7. avoidance 8. choice 9. selection 10. reduction Part 4: (1 point): Each correct answer 0,2 point. 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D SECTION II: READING COMPREHENSION: (4,4 points) Part 1: (1,4 points): Each correct answer 0,2 point. 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. B Part 2: (3 points): Each correct answer 0,2 point. 1. B 6. D 11. D 2. C 7. A 12. C 3. B 8. B 13. C 4. A 9. A 14. A 5. D 10. C 15. D
8. SECTION III: WRITING (5 points) Part 1: (2 points): Each correct answer 0,2 point. 1. Nobody took any notice of Jack despite his strange clothes. 2. It was not so much a marriage as a business arrangement. 3. You must have no contact/communication with anyone involved in this case. 4. At the age of three, he was made/forced to study Latin by his father. 5. I’d rather you paid in cash. 6. No matter how (hard) I tried, I couldn’t understand the code. 7. There is nothing Professor Helsing doesn’t know about this menu script. There is nothing new/more for Professor Helsing to learn about this menu script. 8. Trade in your existing answer phone and we will reduce the price of a new one by $100. 9. Norman regretted losing/having lost his temper. 10. Much as I respect the law, I cannot accept the court’s decision. Part 2: (3 points): - Viết đúng thể loại (passage): 0,5 điểm. - Viết đúng chủ đề, đảm bảo đúng cấu trúc của đoạn văn: 0,5 điểm. - Nội dung: 2 điểm.
9. ĐỀ SỐ 2 KÌ THI CHỌN HSG TỈNH MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12 Thời gian : 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) SECTION A – PHONETICS I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. advantage B. adventure C. advertise D. addition 2. A. design B. preserve C. basic D. physical 3. A. concerned B. received C. attached D. concealed 4. A. cough B. rough C. enough D. touch 5. A. chooses B. houses C. rises D. horses II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others. 1. A. already B. complain C. arrangement D. temperature 2. A. inspire B. wealthy C. protect D. instinct 3. A. advance B. ancient C. cancer D. annual 4. A. mathematics B. statistics C. academy D. mechanic 5. A. gravitation B. behaviour C. manufacture D. recommend SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. 1. In his student days he was as poor as a church . A. beggar B. miser C. mouse D. pauper 2. She may have been poor, but she was honest. A. finally B. in the end C. at least D. at last 3. The manager was very with me about my prospects of promotion. A. sincere B. friendly C. just D. frank 4. The unmarried ladies regard him as a very young man. A. ineligible B. illegible C. illicit D. eligible 5. Mr Lazybones to work harder in future. A. excepted B. agreed C. accorded D. accepted 6. He believed that promotion should be awarded on , not on length of service. A. equality B. merit C. characteristics D. purposes 7. It is a criminal offence to the facts. A. oppress B. suppress C. repress D. express 8. He the cart before the horse by buying the ring before he had proposed to her. A. fastened B. tied C. put D. coupled 9. Every delicacy Miss Cook produces is done . A. there and then B. at will C. sooner or later D. to a turn 10. She tells her small boy everyday not to be rude, but it’s like water off a duck’s . A. wings B. beak C. back D. feathers 11. Announcing that he was totally done , Grandfather retired to bed. A. out B. with C. in D. down 12. Oliver Twist had already had his fair of food. A. ratio B. help C. ration D. division 13. Some great men have had an school record. A. indistinct B. indistinguishable C. extinguished D. undistinguished 14. Buyers and sellers were over prices. A. hacking B. hugging C. heckling D. haggling 15. Within a few weeks all this present trouble will have blown . A. along B. over C. out D. away 16. The six (and last) volume in the series is with its predecessors. A. uniform B. similar C. like D. identical 17. Politicians often promise to solve all a country’s problems . A. thick and fast B. on the whole C. of set purpose D. at a stroke
10. 18. When the detectives finally trapped him, he had to lying. A. resource B. retort C. resort D. recourse 19. My late grandmother me this silver teapot. A. bequested B. willed C. bequeathed D. inherited 20. It was getting midnight when he left. A. on B. on to C. to D. past II. The following paragragh has 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes in the lines and correct them. Write your answer in the space provided. COMMUNICATION Managers spend most of their free time communicating - reading,writing, talking or listening. Yet the evidence is they do not always do this successfully. One reason that has been suggested for this is that, in the past, communication was regarded like a natural process, not taught in any formal sense. This theory has been changing, and the concept in communication as an “art” now appears regularly in management courses and seminars. Communication is probably one of the least appreciated aspect of management, and more and more organisations are realising that effective communication involves to tell staff why things are happening. This not only helps day - to - day working but allows changes to be introducing more smoothly, and sometimes leads to improvements being mentioned by staff. Both the morale and efficiency of an organisation depends to a great extent on the abilities of its staff to communicate effectively. Communication is not something which should be undertaken only when trouble occurs. I should be a daily habit if the organisation is to run smoothly and avoid difficulties and, of course, it should be the two - way process, involving listening as well as talking. Regular exchanges of ideas between managers and staff will help to create a good teamwork. Mistake Correction Mistake Correction 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. III. Use the correct form of each of the words given in parentheses to fill in the blank in each sentence. WEDDING OF STRANGERS A wedding between two strangers who met for the first time when they exchanged marital vows during a peak time radio broadcast has come in for widespread (1) (critic). Carla Germaine and Greg Cordell were married after winning each other in a ‘lonely heart’ competition organized by BRMB radio station. The service, perhaps (2) (surprise), attracted the highest ratings figures of the year. The model and salesman were (3) (dismiss) of their critics and say they have made a serious (4) (commit) to make their marriage work. ‘Everyone seems to have the (5) (expect) that we will split up, but we’re going to prove them wrong,’ Cordell said (6) (defy). The couple were selected from 200 (7) (hope) candidates by a panel including (8) (relate) counsellors and an astrologer. As well as each other, they won a free honeymoon in the Bahamas, a sports car and a luxury two bedroom apartment. ANIMALS Most cat ansd dog owners would swear their pet was virtually human. It’s pleased to see you and shows its disapproval when they go. It may not be particularly (9) (talk) or a genius mathematics but it sees grass as green and inhabits as rich world of smells (10) (imagine) to us. Until recently such notions of a pet’s inner life, with (11) (similar) to our own in some ways would have been met with a (12) (know) sneer in many respected (13) (science) circles. Nowdays in fact, claiming (14) (conscious) for your pets is commonplace. The problem now is providing an adequate (15) (define) of what this actually means. Is it about having sensations like hunger and pain, or is it more about the ability to be aware that you are experiencing something? SECTION C – READING
11. I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C,D. Printers use the term broadside to refer to a large piece of paper printed on one side. In military language, it means an attack with all one’s forces. Dudley Randall invoked both these senses of the word when he established the Broadside Press in 1965. Randall was a librarian and poet in Detroit when he began the Press with his personal savings as a way to copyright the words to his ballad about a 1963 racial incident in which Whites killed three Black children. The poem was printed as a broadside. “By creating the Broadside Press, the most successful poetry institution in the history of African American literature. Randall created something that had previously not existed in the United States - an organization that would publish the works of Black poets,” explains Professor Melba Boyd, a poet and former Press editor. Historically, work by Black poets had been criticized for emphasizing political issues and not using the traditional poetic forms of the White literary establishment. Thus, Black poets had found it difficult to get published. Boyd is producing a film documentary that will present Randall’s biography as well as his poetry. Randall served as general editor of the Press from 1965 to 1977. In the mid-seventies sky-rocketing printing costs and the closing of many small bookstores to whom he had extended credit left the Press in financial straits. Randall then sold the Press and slumped into a depression, but in the 1980’s, he revived community support for the Press through the Broadside Poets Theater. Boyd hopes her documentary on Randall will introduce more people to African American literature. 1. According to the passage, the Broadside Press is the most famous as a publisher of A. criticism of traditional White poetry. B. biographies of famous African American poets. C. poetry written by African Americans. D. African American documentaries. 2. Who paid the cost to start the Press? A. An organization Black writer B. Dudley Randall C. Professor Boyd D. Many small bookstores 3. According to Professor Boyd, what significant change occurred because of the Broadside Press? A. Black poets returned to traditional poetic forms. B. Historical works about African Americans began to appear in print. C. The Black literary establishment began to emphasize political issues. D. It became easier for Black poets to get their work in print. 4. What happened to the Broadside Press in the 1980’s? A. It was renamed the Broadside Poets Theater. B. It moved into a different community. C. It regained popular support. D. It helped support small bookstores during a depression. 5. What did the Broadside Poets Theater do? A. helped get support for the Broadside Press. B. led Randall into a personal depression. C. led the Broadside Press into financial difficulties. D. supported many bookstores in the community. II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. HELP ALWAYS AT HAND: A MOBILE IS A GIRL’S BEST FRIEND If it fits inside a pocket, keeps you safe as well as in touch with your office, your mother and your children, it is (1) worth having. This is the (2) . . of the (3) ranks of female mobile-phone users who are beginning to (4) . the customer market. Although Britain has been (5) . to be one of the most expensive places in the world to (6) . a mobile phone, both professional women and (7) mothers are underterred. At first, the mobile phone was a rich man plaything, or a businessman’s (8) symbol. Now women own almost as telephones as men do - but for very different reasons. The main (9) . for most women customers is that it (10) a form of communications back-up, wherever they are, in case of (11) . James Tanner of Tancroft Communications says:
12. ‘The (12) . of people buying phones from us this year were women - often young women - or men who were buying for their mothers, wives and girlfriends. And it always seems to be a question of (13) .of mind. ‘Size is also (14) . for women. They want something that will fit in a handbag,’ said Mr Tanner, ‘The tiny phones coming in are having a very big (15) . . This year’s models are only half the size of your hand.’ 1. A. totally B. certainly C. absolutely D. completely 2. A. vision B. vista C. view D. panorama 3. A. swelling B. increasing C. boosting D. maximising 4. A. master B. dominate C. overbear D. command 5. A. demonstrated B. shown C. established D. seen 6. A. function B. drive C. work D. run 7. A. complete B. total C. full-time D. absolute 8. A. prestige B. fame C. power D. status 9. A. attraction B. enticement C. charm D. lure 10. A. supplies B. furnishes C. provides D. gives 11. A. urgency B. emergency C. predicament D. contingency 12. A. most B. preponderance C. majority D. bulk 13. A. tranquility B. calmness C. serenity D. peace 14. A. crucial B. necessary C. urgent D. essential 15. A. impact B. impression C. perception D. image III. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word. In a village on the east coast of Scotland, people were waiting anxiously for news. Two of their fishing-boats (1) . been caught in the storm (2) . had blown up during the night. In the cottages round the harbour, people stood by their door, (3) worried to talk. The rest of the fishing fleet had (4) . . The harbour before dark, and the men from these ships waited and watched with the wives and families of (5) . missing men. Some had brought thick blankets and some flasks of hot drinks, knowing that the men (6) be cold and tired. As dawn began to break over in the east, a small point of light was spotted in the darkness of the water and a (7) . minutes later, (8) was a shout. Before long, the two boats were turning in, past the lighthouse, to the inside of the harbour. The men (9) helped out of their boats, and although they were stiff (10) cold and tiredness, they were all safe. SECTION D – WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. 1. Melissa’s father was very busy, but he still played with her. Busy 2. Mrs Wilson says she’s sorry she didn’t attend the meeting yesterday morning. Mrs Wilson sends 3. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine. I cancelled 4. For further information, please send a self-addressed envelope to the above address. Further information can 5. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early. But for his 6. I have called this meeting in order to present the latest sales figures. My purpose 7. Skyscrapers in the USA are on average taller than anywhere else in the world. The average 8. I was surprised at how easy he was to talk to. I hadn’t expected 9. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves. All dogs are 10. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.
13. At no time II. Some people think that the use of computers should be restricted to reduce its harmful effect on children. Do you agree or disagree? Write a composition of 200 words, giving your opinion on the topic. ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH-KHỐI 12 SECTION A – PHONETICS I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (1/1) 1. C 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.(1/1) 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. (1/1) 1. C 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. A II. Identify the mistakes in the lines and correct them. Write your answer in the space provided. (1/1) Mistake Correction Mistake Correction 1. is they is that they 6. introducing introduced 2. like as 7. depends depend 3. regularly in regularly of 8. which that 4. aspect aspects 9. the a 5. to tell telling 10. a good teamwork good teamwork III. Use the correct form of each of the words given in parentheses to fill in the blank in each sentence. (1/1) 1. criticism 2. surprisingly 3. dismissive 4. commitment 5. expectation 6. defiantly 7. hopeful 8. relationship 9. talkative 10. unimaginable 11. similarities 12. knowing 13. scientific 14. consciousness 15. definition SECTION C – READING I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. (2/1) 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. (1/1) 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. A III. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word. (1/1) 1. had 2. which/that 3. too 4. reached 5. the 6. would 7. few 8. there 9. were 10. from/with SECTION D – WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one. (1/1) 1. Busy as/though he was, Melisa’s father still played with her. 2. Mrs Wilson sends her apologies for not having attended the meeting yesterday morning. 3. I cancelled my subscription to that magazine nine months ago. 4. Further information can be obtained by sending a self-addressed envelope to the above address. 5. But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family business. 6. My purpose in calling this meeting is to present the latest sales figures. 7. The average skycraper in the USA is higher than anywhere else in the world. 8. I hadn’t expected (that) he would be/ him to be so easy person to talk. 9. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves. 10.At no time did the two sides look likely to reach agreement.
14. II. Composition. ( 20 points ) + Vocabulary and Grammar: 30 % + Style: 40 % + Content: 30 %
15. ĐỀ SỐ 3 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VĂN HOÁ CẤP MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh - LỚP 12 Phổ thông Thời gian làm bài 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Số phách ĐIỂM Bằng số: Chữ ký giám khảo 1: BÀI THI Bằng chữ: Chữ ký giám khảo 2: - Đề thi gồm 06 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. LƯU Ý: - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào kể cả từ điển. SECTION A: LISTENING (1 POINTS) I. You will hear a student and an advisor talking about the facilities at the college. Listen carefully and answer questions from 1 to 5. You will hear the information twice. (5 pts) 1. If the student has to get medicines, there’s a prescription charge of ___. A. £ 6.15 B. £ 6.50 C. £ 5.16 D. £ 5.60 2. Where is the student living at the moment? A. at a hotel B. at a hostel C. in the Sport Centre D. at his own apartment 3. Counseling service is on the ___. A. North Campus B. Central Campus C. South Campus D. West Centre 4. If the student wants to make a note, the number is ___. A. 09100625913 B. 90100625913 C. 09100762593 D. 09007625913 5. The fee you have to pay to get a pass is ___. A. £ 12 B. £ 22 C. £ 32 D. £ 42 II. You will hear part of a lecture on Wildlife. Listen carefully and answer questions from 1 to 10. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the information twice. (10 pts) The European Starling. Length: (1) ___. Colour: black or grey, white spots. Nesting sites: Trees and (2) ___. Diet: insects and fruit. Natural range: British Isles, Finland Population: British Isles, Finland: in decline USA: (3) ___ birds Some of the problems created by large numbers of starlings. On wildlife: They compete with other species for nesting places. On agriculture: They feed on commercia crops. They cause financial damage. On human life: They may cause (4) ___. Possible solutions. There are three approaches in theory. The best one, of course, is (5) ___. SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (35 POINTS) I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences by circling A, B, C or D. (10 pts) 1. Preparing for a job interview can be ___, particularly when you are called for the first interview. A. stressful B. tired C. convenient D. suitable
16. 2. The Red List - a global list of endangered and vulnerable animal species - has been introduced to ___ people’s awareness of conservation needs. A. rise B. raise C. draw D. arise 3. As the human population grew and weapons became more advanced, elephants were ___ greater threat. A. in B. of C. beyond D. under 4. In the future, office will go ___ with the result that paper will almost completely disappear. A. electric B. electricity C. electronic D. electrify 5. Let’s ___ the place; it looks so gloomy and unpleasant. A. miss B. abandon C. depart D. disappear 6. Mary's mother ___ her against taking too much luggage on her trip. A. warned B. recommended C. encouraged D. reprimanded 7. The context ___ you learn something can affect how well you remember it. A. which B. in which C. on which D. that 8. The Chinese widen their eyes to politely express anger, ___ the Europeans regard this expression as a sign of astonishment. A. though B. however C. where D. whereas 9. The curriculum at the public school is as good ___ of any private school. A. or better than B. as or better than that C. as or better that D. as or better than those 10. Some people don’t agree with ___ very young and pretty criminals. A. committing B. enforcing C. imprisoning D. offending II. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (5 pts) a. I’m sorry I (1. not be) ___ in when you came round. I would like (2. see) ___ you . b. It was our fault to keep Jane (3. wait) ___ so long. We (4. inform) ___ her in advance. c. The number of students (5. attend) ___ English courses (6. probably reduce) ___ next year. d. I'm sorry; we seem (7. run) ___ out of coffee. We (8. have) ___ some tea instead? e. Just relax, Anthony. As soon as your sprained ankle (9. heal) ___, you can play soccer again. At this time next week, you (10. play) ___ soccer again. Your answers: 1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___ III. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. (10pts) Most of us want to be healthy all our lives. Doctors say that to achieve this, (1. prevent) ___ is better than cure, so they advise us to avoid certain (2. active) ___ like smoking, (3. excess) ___ drinking or taking certain substances such as drugs, to eat (4. sense) ___, to take plenty of regular and demanding exercise, and, of course, to live in clean, hygienic conditions. (5. Fortunate) ___, many of us have difficulty following this very good advice. Exercise, for example, can be boring, time-consuming and (6. convenience) ___. Even worse, some of our favorite foods like beef - burgers, (7. can) ___ drinks, ice-creams and crisps are the (8. health) ___ ones, and some things that young people often really enjoy, like bungee jumping, car racing and (9. parachute) ___ are among the most (10. excite) ___ things we can do, though, of course, they can be dangerous. What's better, live now and pay later or play it safe? Your answers: 1. ___ 6. ___ 2. ___ 7. ___ 3. ___ 8. ___ 4. ___ 9. ___ 5. ___ 10. ___ IV. Each of the sentences below contains ONE mistake. Underline the mistakes and correct them. (5 pts)
17. Your answers: 1. The rhinoceros is known for its distinctively horns, which continue to grow ___ throughout the animal’s lifetime. 2. Thanks to timely actions, some elephant populations, especially that in ___ southern Africa, have recovered over the last decade. 3. I have bought a present for my mother, and now I need some wrapped paper. ___ 4. Joel giving up smoking has caused him to gain weight and become irritable with ___ his acquaintances. 5. If you choose to work in Nepal, you will find a well - establishing programme, ___ especially in the capital Kathmandu. V. Complete the following dialogue. (5 pts) Town Information Office, Brighton, Sussex Tourist: Good morning. Could you suggest what we could visit here? Are there any old buildings, for example? Officer: Well, there’s the Royal Pavilion. It’s very famous. Tourist: It sounds interesting. (1) ___? Officer: Take the number 14 bus from here; it goes straight there. Tourist: How often does it run? Officer: At a quarter to and quarter past four. Tourist: (2) ___? Officer: Oh, it only takes about 10 minutes, so it’s not far. Tourist: (3) ___? Officer: Every day, including weekends. Opening hours are 10 am to 4 pm. Tourist: (4) ___? Officer: No, not very. It costs 200 for adults and 50p for children. Tourist: That’s a lot. We’ve got three children. Officer: Well, why don’t you get a family ticket? That’s much cheaper. Tourist: (5) ___ Officer: You’re very welcome. Goodbye. SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS) I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts) Venezuela's President Hugo Chavez died from respiratory problems, (1) ___ 58. He had been seriously ill with cancer for over a year. (2) ___ had been much speculation over whether or not he would regain his health to resume his presidential duties. Venezuelan vice-president Nicolas Maduro informed the nation on Tuesday evening, (3) ___ Venezuelans that Mr. Chavez had died, "after battling a tough (4) ___ for nearly two years." Maduro speculated that Chavez's cancer was started by foul play. He said: "We have (5) ___ doubt that Commandant Chavez was attacked with this illness. We don't have a single doubt. The established enemies of our land specifically tried to (6) ___ the health of our leader." Hugo Chavez was a highly popular leader in his country (7) ___ continually championed the causes and rights of the poor. He redirected significant sums from the country's considerable oil revenues into social welfare programmes. He became famous for his fiery speeches, (8) ___ those attacking the USA. He (9) ___ several controversial attacks on the president George W. Bush, whom he labeled a devil. Mr. Maduro led a call for Venezuelans to celebrate Chavez, saying: "We're going to grow, we're going to get past this. Have a lot of courage. Stay strong, be strong. Let his name rise up. Let's praise Hugo Chavez." He added: "Those who die (10) ___ life can't be called dead." II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer by circling A, B, C or D. (10 pts) BOOKS FROM PLANTS It is easy in these days for a boy or a girl to have a book to enjoy. Today books are light and (1) ___. Try to imagine a time when there were no books. There was (2) ___ a time.
18. When man first began to draw, he used the walls of his caves; later he made marks on (3) ___ other objects such as large pieces of stone and bricks of clay. (4) ___ time, man thought of using the smooth sides of animal hides to write on. You see, paper did not yet exist. Without paper, books (5) ___ we know them could not be made. Paper was first produced by the Egyptian many hundreds of years ago. At that time there grew in the valley of the Nile River in Egypt a reedy plant (6) ___ the papyrus. In endeavoring to find material suitable (7) ___ writing, the Egyptian found a (8) ___ to use this plant. The stem of the plant, especially its center or pith, was cut up and laid out in layers which were processed by soaking, pounding, and drying into thin, flexible, writing (9) ___. A wonderful development of great importance to mankind had been (10) ___. 1. A. portable B. transferable C. moveable D. transportable 2. A. in fact B. really C. such D. indeed 3. A. endless B. variety C. numerate D. numerous 4. A. Without B. With C. In D. On 5. A. as B. like C. which D. that 6. A. called B. calling C. known D. addressed 7. A. with B. for C. of D. in 8. A. method B. way C. technique D. manner 9. A. plates B. sheets C. blocks D. patches 10. A. made B. reached C. done D. realized III. Read the passage below and choose the correct answer by circling A, B, C or D. (5 pts) Children across the street were celebrating the fall of the first snowflake. This was what Nadia longed for but she was not like them. She was not allowed to play in the snow. Nadia’s parents were slaves. They worked for Mr. and Mrs. Flinch who had made it clear that Nadia must not be near their children. She longed to learn to read and write. Every morning, she would hear the children talking excitedly about school. They dressed well unlike Nadia. She had scruffy clothes and unkempt hair. Whenever she tried to neaten herself, her parents would quickly stop her and admonish her. She did not belong to the upper classes. Nadia heard the key turning in the lock. She jumped up in anticipation of what her parents would have. Their employers were kinder during winter and Nadia would sometimes be lavished with the children’s old clothes and food. Nadia saw her parents’ faces as they entered. They were beaming with delight. Almost falling out of their hands was a whole turkey! Nadia could not believe her eyes. The turkey would last for days. She would not have to scrimp on the leftovers that she usually had. The snow couldn’t wait. All she wanted to do was taste the succulent turkey. 1. Nadia wished that she could ___. A. look at snow B. talk to the children C. touch the snow D. play with the children 2. It was easy to tell that Nadia was not in the upper class because ___. A. she had long hair B. she did not know where the school was C. her clothes were dirty D. her parents were afraid of Mr and Mrs Flinch 3. Nadia wanted to go to school so as to ___. A. talk to the children B. meet the teachers C. be able to get out of the house D. be literate 4. Nadia “jumped up” as she ___. A. was very hungry B. knew that her parents would have something for her C. needed new clothes for winter D. wanted to ask her parents if she could go to school 5. The first thing that Nadia thought of when she saw what her parents had brought home was ___. A. how long the turkey would last B. how kind Mr and Mrs Flinch were C. the type of leftovers she had been eating D. her parents had not let her down IV. Choose the most appropriate heading from the list A - G for each part (1- 5) of the article. There is one extra heading which you do not need to use. The first has been done as an example. (5 pts) List of Headings A. Stay calm B. Be organized C. Vary the way you revise D. Remembering the difficult bits E. Write down the main points F. Reward yourself G. Set yourself targets
19. HOT TIPS FOR STAYING COOL AT EXAM TIME 0 ___G___ It’s always good to know what you’re aiming for, so that you know if and when you get there. By having an aim for each week, or even each day, it will help you check your progress and show you if you need to change your plans. 1. ___ Rather than have to work through masses of notes every time you revise something, try noting down the things you want to remember on a piece of paper. It doesn’t seem as much to learn that way, but it makes sure you don’t miss out anything important. Once you’ve learnt the main points, rewrite them on another piece of paper without looking at your notes. 2. ___ There is nothing worse than being disorganized. If you have a plan and stick to it, you won’t end up cramming all your revision into the last few hours!. Make a list of your exams and what you need to learn beforehand, and then drew up a timetable covering all the topics. You can then work out what you need to do on a weekly basis and when you are going to do it. 3. ___ By now you’ll probably have discovered the method of revision which suits you best. But now and then it might be helpful to try a different method. You could try working with a group of friends, or using a different book which covers things from a new angle. Whatever it is, just try something different occasionally. 4. ___ Some things are almost impossible to remember, so you may need to do something unusual to help you remember. Try writing them down in large letters and bright colors and sticking them on the fridge, on a mirror or on the bathroom door. Try recording them onto a cassette and keep playing it back to yourself- on a personal stereo if you have got one!. 5. ___ Not too many people like exams and most of us get nervous. But if you’ve followed your plan and put the effort into revising, then there is no need to worry or panic. Hopefully these tips will have helped you. Give it your best shot- that’s all that anyone can expect of you. SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS) I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts) 1. The alarm went off just as they came out of the building.  Scarcely ___ 2. The only way you can become a good football player is by training hard every day.  Only by ___ 3. I'd prefer him not to have said all those embarrassing things about me.  I'd rather he ___ 4. I shall never lend Robert any money, no matter what happens.  Under no ___ 5. It seems that no one predicted the correct result.  No one ___ 6. Mr. Wilson says he's sorry he didn't attend the meeting yesterday morning.  Mr. Wilson sends ___ 7. Even though it was raining heavily, the explorers decided to continue their journey.  The heavy rain ___ 8. The lesson was so boring that she fell asleep.  It ___ 9. Paul smashed a window and damaged the television too.  Not only ___ 10. Provided your handwriting is legible, the examiner will accept your answer.  So long as the examiner can ___
20. II. Use the word given to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the word given . (5pts) 1. Teams of experts are examining the damage to the building. (examined)  ___ 2. I used my calculator; otherwise, it would have taken longer.(If)  ___ 3. You didn’t think carefully enough before you decided. (ought)  ___ 4. My advice to you is to change the car immediately. (were)  ___ 5. “Please don’t take my money, it’s all I have.” said the old woman to the intruder. (pleaded)  ___ III. Complete the following sentences, using the words given. (5 pts) 1. That/ English/ have/most speakers/ world/ wrong.  ___ 2. Looking / after / children / call / great / patience / love / them.  ___ 3. Only amateur athletes/ allow/ participate/ Olympic Games.  ___ 4. There/ be/ gradual/ decrease/ number/ people/ out of work/ so far.  ___ 5. By/ time/ they/ arrive/ stadium/ all the tickets/ match/ already/ sell out.  ___ - THE END - Key Tổng điểm: 100 SECTION A. ( POINTS) I. (5 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B II. (10 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. 12/ twelve inches 2. buildings 3. 170 million 4. diseases 5. prevention SECTION B. (35 POINTS) I. (10 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. C II. (5 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0.5 điểm 1. wasn’t 2. to have seen 3. waiting 4. should have informed 5. attending 6. will probably be reduced 7. to have run 8. Shall we have 9. has healed 10. will be playing III. (10pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. prevention 6 inconvenient 2. activities 7. canned 3. excessive 8. unhealthy
21. 4. sensibly 9. parachuting 5. Unfortunately 10. exciting IV. (5 pts) - Tìm được lỗi sai được 0.5 điểm; sửa đúng được 0.5 điểm 1. distinctively → distinctive 2. that → those 3. wrapped paper → wrapping paper 4. Joel (giving) → Joel’s (giving) 5. well-establishing → well-established V. (5 pts) - Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 1 điểm 1. How do/can you/we/I get there? 2. (And) how long does / will it take (us/me to get there)?/ Is it far (from here)? 3. Can/Could you tell me when it/the Pavilion is open? When does it open?/ When is it open(ed)? 4. Is it expensive to get in /visit it? /It’s expensive to get in, isn’t it? Does the ticket cost much? Are the tickets expensive? 5. (That's/It’s) a good/great idea. Thank you (very much). / Thank you for your good idea/advice. SECTION C. (30 POINTS) I. (10 pts) - Mỗi từ điền đúng được 1 điểm 1. aged 2. There 3. telling 4. illness 5. no 6. harm 7. who/that 8. especially/ particularly 9. made 10. for II. (10 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. A 2. C 3. D 4.C 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. A III. (5 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. C 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A IV. (5 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. E 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A SECTION D. (20 POINTS) I. (10 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. Scarcely had they come out of the building when/before the alarm went off. 2. Only by training hard every day can you become a good football player. 3. I'd rather he hadn't said all those embarrassing things about me. 4. Under no circumstances will/shall I (ever) lend Robert any money. 5. No one seems to have predicted the correct result. 6.Mr Wilson sends his apologies /apology for not attending / having attended the meeting yesterday morning. 7. The heavy rain could not prevent the explorers from continuing their journey. 3. It was such a boring lesson/ so boring a lesson that she fell asleep. 9. Not only did Paul smash a widow but he also damaged the television. Not only did Paul smash a widow but he damaged the television as well. Not only did Paul smash a widow, he also damaged the television. 10. So long as the examiner can read your handwriting, he will accept your answer. II. (5 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. The damage to the building is being examined by teams of experts. 2. If I hadn’t used my calculator, it would have taken longer.
22. 3. You ought to have thought carefully before you decided. 4. If I were you, I would change the car immediately 5. The old woman pleaded with the intruder not to take her money because/ as/ since it was all she had. III. (5 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. That English has the most speakers in the world is wrong. 2. Looking after children calls for great patience and love for them. 3. Only amateur athletes are allowed to participate in (the) Olympic Games. 4. There has been a gradual decrease in the number of people (who are) out of work so far. 5. By the time they arrived at the stadium, all the tickets for the match had already been sold out.
23. ĐỀ SỐ 4 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THANH HÓA Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Lớp 12-THPT ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian : 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi này gồm có 07 trang Họ tên thí sinh: Phòng thi số: Số báo danh: PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts) Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2 pts) 1. A. famous B. nervous C. favourite D. mountain 2. A. through B. enough C. rough D. tough Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (3 pts) 3. A. passion B. encourage C. occasion D. depend 4. A. participant B. publicity C. competitive D. Individual 5. A. limitation B. documentary C. government D. interactive PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts) Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts) 6. 1915 that the cinema really became an industry. A. It is not until B. It was not until C. Not until D. Until in 7. I really appreciate___ to help me, but I am sure I’ll be able to manage by myself. A. you to offer B. you are offering C. your offering D. that you offer 8. My friend’s uncle has been___ MP ( Member of Parliament) for five years. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø 9. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “ .” A. Lovely, I think so B. No problem C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. Thank you. Hope you will drop in 10. My new glasses cost me ___ the last pair I bought last month. A. more than three times C. more three times than B. three times as much as D. as much three times as 11. We bought some ___.
24. A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses 12. After years of neglect, there was a huge ___ program to return the city to its former glory. A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. Refurbishment 13. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is___ the law. A. beyond B. over C. above D. Onto 14. On the___, optimists believe that life will be much better than it is today. A. contrary B. contrast C. opposition D. opponent 15. You had your house decorated, ? A. hadn’t you B. didn’t you C. weren’t you D. haven’t you 16. A part – time job gives me the freedom to my own interests. A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch 17. The type of plant and animal life living in and around a pond depends on the soil of the pond, , and the pond’s location. A. what the quality of the water is B. how is the water quality C. the quality of water D. what is the water quality 18. ___ its accuracy, laser is very useful in medicine. A. In view of B. As a result of C. Thanks to D. Despite 19. ___ for their strong fiber include flax and hemp. A. Plants are grown B. Plants grown C. Plants that grow D. To grow plants 20. ___ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion. A. What the Moon B. The Moon which C. When the Moon D. That the Moon Question II: The following passage contains 10 unnecessary words. Find and write the word(s) on your answer sheet (10 pts) (Questions 21-30).
25. line 1 As you will see from my curriculum vitae, I have attended university, where I studied English and Law. After finishing my course, I took a job in a travel agency in Paris and now I organise few hours for people who wanting to go to Australia and the United States. Although I enjoy this very much, I feel I need to get more 5 experience and it would seems to me that working as a specialised tour guide in England would help me for do that. I would rather work in an English-speaking country, as I need to practise my English. I spend one year at London University, which it was most useful. I did much conversation classes and at first I thought that I would find them difficult. However, they turned out to be very enjoyable. I 10 will have no any difficulty in coming to England for an interview if you will let 11 me know in plenty of the time. I enclose details of my present employer who will be too pleased to send you a reference. Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) 31. By the time the war is over, thousands of innocent people ( kill)___. 32. Tom will never forget ( send)___ to a boarding school when he was just 8 years old. 33-34. The accident ( report)___(cause)___ by a reckless motorist. 35. Many people (invite) ___ to the party couldn’t come because it rained heavily. 36. In her report, she mentioned (treat) ___ at a hospital abroad last year 37. Hardly our teacher (enter) ___the classroom when it started to rain. 38. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military Symphony Orchestra and 17 traditional musicians, (come) ___to Vietnam since yesterday. 39. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look) ___ for the escaped prisoner. 40. My uncle would rather that I ( not leave) ___ yesterday. Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) 41. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save ___ species.(DANGER) 42.There are some ___ and differences between the New Year in Japan and that in Vietnam. (SIMILAR) 43. He resigned for a ___ of reasons. (VARIOUS) 44. We have to decide to interview only the best six ___ for the job. (APPLY) 45. Her son is always mischievous and ___, which annoys her very much. (OBEY) 46. Sugar is the___ of healthy teeth. (DESTRUCTION) 47. What percentage of the city’s ___ live in poverty? (HOUSE)
26. 48. When confronted with a mass of red tape, many people feel a sense of ___(POWER) 49. Mr. Pike has___ his wife by three years. (LIVE) 50. I was a bit___ by my performance in the first exam, but I decided (MORAL) to make an extra effort in the ones left. PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts) Childhood is the time when there are (51)___ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child has good parents, he is (52) ___ , looked after and loved, whatever he may do. It is improbable that he will ever again in his life be given so much without having to do anything in return. In (53) ___, life is always presenting new things to the child- things that have lost their interest for older people because they are too well- known. A child finds pleasure playing in the rain , or in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is a marvellous adventure. But a child has his (54) ___ .He is not so free to do as he wishes as he thinks older people are: he is continually told not to do things, or being punished (55) ___ what he has done wrong. His life’s therefore not perfectly happy. When a young man starts to (56) ___his own living, he becomes free from the discipline of school and parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He can no longer expect (57) ___ to pay for his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to work if he wants to live comfortably. If he spends most time playing about in a day he used to as a child, he will be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of society as he used to break the laws of his parents, he may go to prison. If, however, he works hard, keeps out of trouble and has good health, he can have the greatest happiness of seeing himself make steady (58) ___ in his job and of building up for himself his own position in society. Old age has always been thought of as the worst age to be, but it is not necessary for the old to be unhappy. With old age (59) ___wisdom and the ability to help others with advice wisely given. The old can have the joy of seeing their children making progress in life: they can watch their grandchildren growing up around them, and perhaps best of all, they can, if their life has been a useful one, feel the happiness of having come (60) ___ the battle of life safely and of having reached a time when they can lie back and rest, leaving others to continue the fight. 51. A. little B. a few C. a little D. few 52. A. eaten B. fed C. feeded D. fetched 53. A. short B. term C. addition D. reality 54. A. injury B. difficulty C. problem D. pain 55. A. because B. by C. at D. for
27. 56. A. take B. have C. create D. earn 57. A. other B. another C. others D. someone 58. A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D. accomplishments 59. A. coming B. come C. came D. had come 60. A. out B. across C. through D. back Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts) THE THREAT TO THE ENVIRONMENT Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in___61___.Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become ___62__ if we do not make an ___63___ to protect them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable ___64___ of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught ___65___ and sold as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat - the place ___66___ they live - is disappearing. More ___67___ is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces ___68___ there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops but these chemicals ___69__ the environment and harm wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones ___70___ unless we can solve this problem. Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts) For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. Line 5 One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt Line 10 absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect. Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is Line 15 already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some
28. Line 20 rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work. Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop Line 25 gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating Line 30 bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental Line 33 investment. 71. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups? A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume 72. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city 73. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that a. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas b. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces c. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces A. b and c B. a and b C. a D. a, b, and c 74. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens? A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. 75. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except
29. A. increased space for private relaxation B. savings on heating and cooling costs C. better food for city dwellers D. improved air quality 76. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces 77. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative 78. Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim that rooftop gardens are good for the environment? A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share. B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can remove from the air. C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants. D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a rooftop garden. 79. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed. B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored. C. A viewpoint is established and then defended. D. A thesis is presented and then supported. 80. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens. B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens. C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park. D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer. PART D: WRITING (20 pts) Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts) 81. The heavy rain made it impossible for us to have our picnic. Had ___ 82. People no longer smoke so many cigarettes as they used to. The ___
30. 83. My decision to get up to dance coincided with the band’s decision to stop playing. The moment ___ 84. If anyone succeeds in solving the problem, it will probably be him. He is the most ___ 85. We were all shocked by his reaction. His reaction came___ Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts) 86. I left my last job because I didn’t really agree with my manager’s approach. ( EYE) I left my last job because I___ with my manager. 87. All the witnesses said that the accident was my fault. ( BLAME) All the witnesses said that___ the accident. 88. It was childish of him not to accept my apologies. ( REFUSED) He ___ of him. 89. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night. (EARS) What ___ last night. 90. She thought it was too difficult for her to come to the class on time. (FOUND) She ___ the class on time. Question III. Essay writing (10 pts): Some people say that cell phones have improved modern life. Others believe that cell phones have caused many problems to people. What is your opinion? In about 150 - 200 words, write an essay to assert your point of view on this problem. THE END SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THANH HOÁ Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 THPT HD CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang.
31. A- ĐÁP ÁN PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 1.D 2.A 3.A 4.D 5.C PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) Question I. 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.B 11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.D Question II. WORD LINE WORD LINE 21. few 3 26. much 8 22. who 3 27. any 9 23. would 5 28. will 10 24. for 6 29. the 10 25. it 7 30. too 11 Question III 31. will have been killed 36. having been treated 32. being sent 37. had our teacher entered 33. was reported 38. has come 34. to have been caused 39 must be looking 35. invited 40. hadn’t left Question IV 41.endangered 42. similarities 43. variety 44. applicants 45. disobedient 46. destroyer 47.households 48. powerlessness 49. outlived 50. demoralised/ demoralized PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) ( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) Question I 51.D 52.B 53.C 54.D 55.D 56.D 57.C 58.A 59.B 60.C Question II. 61. danger 62. extinct 63. effort 64. parts 65. alive 66. where 67. land 68. than 69. pollute 70. left Question III. 71. C 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. A 76. C 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. B
32. PART D: WRITING (20 pts) Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 81. - Had it not been for the heavy rain, we could have had our picnic. - Had it not rained heavily, we could have had our picnic. 82. The smoking of cigarettes is no longer as popular as it used to be. 83. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing. 84. He is the most likely person to succeed in solving the problem 85. His reaction came as a shock to us all Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 86. I left my last job because I didn’t really see eye to eye with my manager. 87. All the witnesses said that I was to blame for the accident. 88. He refused to accept my apologies, which was childish of him 89. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night. 90. She found it too diffcult to come to the class on time. Question III. Essay: (10 điểm) Marking criteria: + Task completion (4 điểm) Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1 - 4 điểm. + Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm). - Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm: Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm. B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20 Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25 Tổng số điểm thí sinh làm đúng Điểm bài thi = 5
33. ĐỀ SỐ 5 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THANH HÓA Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Lớp 12-THPT ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian : 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Họ tên thí sinh: Phòng thi số: Số báo danh: PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts) Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2 pts) 1. A. wild B. driven C. alive D. sign 2. A. booked B. wicked C. checked D.ticked Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (3 pts) 3. A. solidity B. supervisor C. perversity D. impudence 4. A. birthmark B. anthem C. guidance D. immense 5. A. applicant B. sulphuric C. odourless D. logical PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts) Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts) 6. Although they had only been invited for lunch, they until supper time. A. stayed on B. stayed out C. stayed up D. stayed I 7. It turn out that we rushed to the airport as the plan was delayed by several hours. A. hadn’t B. should have C. needn’t have D. mustn’t 8. It was difficult to guess what her to the news would be. A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion 9. . My new glasses cost me ___ the last pair I bought last month. A. more than three times C. more three times than B. three times as much as D. as much three times as 10.When he returned home , he found the door A. unlocking B. unlocked C. to be unlocked D. have unlocked 11. I wish you’d do the accounts. I don’t have ___ for numbers. A. a head B. a mind C. the heart D. the nerve 12.They go to the seaside .they should be disturbed bythe noise of the city. A. in order that B. so that C.for D. lest 13”.Would you mind dancing with me ?” “ no” He invited me to dance with him but A.I didn’t B. I said I didn’t C.I refused D. I accepted 14. ___ handball is fast becoming ___ popular sport worldwide. A. The/ the B. Φ/ a C. A/ Φ D. Φ/ the 15. 8. ___ of all modern domestic poultry is the red jungle fowl is widely believed. A. The ancestor B. The ancestor is C. How the ancestor D. That the ancestor 16. But for their help , we___ successful. A. would have been B. would not have been C. wouldn’t have D.wouldn’t be 17.Only in extremely dangerous situations .stopped. A. will be the printing presses B. that the printing presses will be C. the printing presses will be D. will the printing presses be 18. John: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester! Mary: ___ but I think it’s quite easy. A. I couldn’t agree more B. I understand what you’re saying C. You’re wrong D. I don’t see in that way 19. receipt of your instructions , I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria. A. on B. in C. by D. with 20. He earned his living by old painting. A. reviving B. restoring C. reforming D. replenishing Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts)
34. Children who tell pop music does not interfere with their homework Line 1 receive support today, with the discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli Line 2 and sounds requires completely different brain pathways which can operate Line 3 at the same time with your appreciation of either being damaged. Line 4 Researchers have founded that listening to car stereos does not create Line 5 much interference when you are driving. Similarly, pop music should not Line 6 interfere to children’s homework. The affect of pop music on their Line 7 performance at it is far outweigh by other factors, such as how happy they Line 8 are to be doing it. These findings could be applied for the design of places Line 9 which people have to take in large amounts of information very quickly. Line 10 They could, for example, be relevantly to the layout of pilot cockpits on Line 11 aircraft. Line 12 Line 13 Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) 31. I don’t believe it! It’s three in the morning and that party still (not finish). 32. Two miles (be) enough for her to go jogging every morning 33. Don’t call him at 2.30 p.m. He ( interview) job applicants at that time 34.I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare) it very carefully at home 35. Our car broke down. But for that, we . (to be) in time 36. It is imperative that the letter (send) at once 37. I don’t mind her (appoint) above me 38. When I see my brother again, he (finish) all his exams 39. My father would rather that we (not leave) yesterday 40. Jane’s train .(arrive) tomorrow morning at 7.00 so we will meet him at the station Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) 41. He is unhappy because of his ___. (deaf) 42. The ___ of the swamps will destroy the mosquitoes’ breeding places. (drain) 43. He has made a great ___to the development of the country. (contribute) 44. We will hire new staff when the ___arises. (necessary) 45. His repeated ___ from school is unacceptable. (absent) 46. The teacher’s words are a great ___ to him. (encourage) 47. They are very ___ of one another. (support) 48. Her interests are very ___. (diversity) 49. I can’t stand his ___. (rude) 50. The holiday was beyond all ___. (expect) PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10PS) I. Choose the one option A, B, C or D that best fits each of the numbered blank. Face-to-face conversation is a two-way process: You speak to me. I rely to you and so on. Two- way (51) depends on having a coding system that is understood by both (52) and receiver, and an agreed convention about (53) the beginning and end of the (54) . In speech, the coding system is the language like English or Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at a time may seem too obvious to (55) . In fact, the (56) that people use in conversations and meetings are often non-verbal. For example, lowering the pitch of the voice may mean the end of a sentence: a sharp intake of breath may signal the desire to (57) catching the chairman’s (58) may indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a (59) a clenched fist may indicate anger. When these (60) signals are not possible, more formal signals may be needed. 51. A. communication B. exchange C. interchange D. correspondence 52. A. transmitter B. messenger C. sender D. announcer 53. A. signaling B. symbolizing C. signing D. showing 54. A. idea B. theme C. topic D. message 55. A. notice B. mention C. recognize D. judge 56. A. signs B. signals C. symptoms D. symbols 57. A. interfere B. interchange C. interrupt D. intercept
35. 58. A. elbow B. shoulder C. hand D. eye 59. A. debate B. chat C. lecture D. broadcast 60. A. auditory B. visual C. verbal D. sensory Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts) MTV stands for Music Television. It's a television (61) dedicated to pop music. It was (62) on 1st August 1981 in the United States. Because of MTV's instant success in the US, the company expanded into other areas. MTV Europe (63) operating on 1st August 1987. MTV Europe(64) 24 hours a day from its London studios. It can be seen in 33 countries and reaches an estimated audience of 110 million viewers. People of 19 different nationalities work at London headquarters, and they try to offer a mixture of music from all over Europe. The channel broadcasts in (65) but Germany provides the biggest number of viewers. Currently, one fifth of the (66) is by German artists. Most of TV output is video and concerts, but there is also a programme (67) Unplugged, where major artists play (68) and acoustic in front of a small studio audience. In addition to music, the channel's programmes (69) with news, movie information and comedy. MTV has also broadcast special report (70) racism, immigration and unemployed teenagers. Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts) As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter. Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”. 71. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage? A. Sinter Klaas B. Saint Nicholas C. A German D. Dutch settlers 72. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a A. tall man who could walk through the air. B. fat, jolly, old man. C. religious figure. D. fat man riding a white horse. 73. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter. B. a good old man with less religious character. C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas. D. a jolly man on horseback. 74. Who was Black Peter? A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas. C. one of the disobedient children. B. an elf who rode a white horse. D. a popular traditional figure.
36. 75. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”? A. symbols of a person C. effects B. natural qualities D. outer appearance 76. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from? A. the North Pole B. Europe C. North America D. the City of New York 77. 1823 was mentioned as a year when A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem. B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular. C. Saint Nicholas visited New York. D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed. 78. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem, A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one. B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly. C. Santa Claus liked poetry. D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh. 79. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that A. the New York Sun was popular with children. B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time. C. newspapers are unreliable. D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun. 80. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A.Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures. B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas. C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America. D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter PART D: WRITING (20 pts) Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts) 81.Someone stole the old lady’s handbag.->The old lady was 82. A true story forms the basis of Mary’s new novel.->Mary’s new novel 83. Children learn alot about how to behave in a situation like this.- >Only 84. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.->Without 85. I write to him almost everyday.->Hardly Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts) 86.The job received over a hundred applications. (APPLIED) 87. Alan prides himself on his punctuality. (TAKES) 88. The last Olympic Games were held in Seoul. (TOOK) 89. He doesn’t appreciate his wife.(GRANTED) 90. The whole team was in a happy mood. (SPIRITS) Question III. Essay writing (10 pts): Writing a paragraph about the advantages or disadvantages of FACEBOOK in our life. Write an essay ( about 150 to 200 words) to express your personal point of view. THE END
37. SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THANH HOÁ Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 THPT HD CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang. A- ĐÁP ÁN: PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 1.B 2.B 3.D 4.D 5.B PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm) Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts) 6A 7C 8B 9B 10B 11A 12D 13C 14B 15D 16B 17D 18B 19A 20B Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts) (Questions 21-30) (10pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer + 0.5pt/ each correction) line mistake correction line mistake correction Line 1 tell say Line 8 affect effect Line 2 pay paying Line 9 outweigh outweighed Line 5 with without Line 11 for to Line 6 founded found Line 11 which where Line 8 to with Line 13 relevantly relevant Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) 1. hasn’t finished 6. be sent/ should be sent 2. is 7. having been appointed (being appointed) 3. will be interviewing 8. will have finished 4. should have prepared 9. hadn’t left 5. would have been 10. arrives Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) 1.0 pt 1. deafness 6. encouragement 2. drainage 7. supportive 3. contribution 8. diverse 4. necessity 9. rudeness 5. absence 10. expectations PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30pts) I Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts) 1. A 3. A 5. B 7. C 9. A 2. C 4. D 6. B 8. D 10. B Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
38. 61. channel 62. broadcast 63. English 64. live 65. born 66music 67. deal 68. called 69. on 70. began/ started PART D: WRITING (20 pts) 71D 72C 73B 74A 75B 76B 77D 78D 79B 80A Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts) 81.The old lady was robbed of her hand bag. 82. Mary’s new novel is based on a true story. 83. Only in a situation like this do children learn a lot about how to behave. 84. Without absolute secrecy this mission would not have succeeded/ been successful/ been a success/ would have failed. 85.Does a day pass without my writing to him. Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts) 86.Over a hundred people applied for the job. 87.Alan takes (a) pride in his punctuality 88. The last Olympic Games took place in Seoul 89.He TAKES HIS WIFE FOR GRANTED 90. The whole team was in good spirits. Question III. Essay: (10 điểm) Marking criteria: + Task completion (4 điểm) Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm. + Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm). - Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm: Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm. B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM: Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20 Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25 Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng Điểm bài thi = 5
39. ĐỀ SỐ 6 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THANH HÓA Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Lớp 12-THPT ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian : 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi này gồm có 05 trang Họ tên thí sinh: Phòng thi số: Số báo danh: PART A: LISTENING (15 pts) Part I. Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer. (5 pts) VIDEO LIBRARY APPLICATION FORM Surname Jones First names: Louise Cynthia Address: (1) ___ 1, 72 Black Street, Highbridge (2) ___ 2085 Telephone: (3) ___ 94561309 Driver's license number: (4) ___ Date of birth: Day: 25th Month: (5) ___ Year: 1977 Part II. A young woman talks about recently discovering that she has a half-sister. Listen and decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). (5 pts) 6. Her family is quite big. T/F 7. Her older sister is 20 years old. T/F 8. Her half-sister is living in Germany. T/F 9. She has never met her half-sister. T/F 10. She has no intention of getting to know her half-sister T/F Part III. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear. (5 pts) 11. There are ___ national parks in the US. A. 30 B. 32 C.50 D. 52 12. National parks account for ___ of the total land area of the country. A. 3% B. 13% C. 30% D. 33% 13. National parks attract ___ visitors each year. A. billions of B. millions of C. a billion D. a million 14. People cut down trees for ___ . A. barks B. wood C. goods D. other parts 15. Devasting fires in large areas of national parks are caused by ___ . A. visitors’ vehicles B. lack of money C. careless people D. the parks’ staff PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 pts) Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts) 16. Military is___in this country. Every man who reaches the age of 18 has to serve in the army for two years. A. compulsory B. optional C. illegal D. unnecessary 17. In ___ most social situations, ___ informality is appreciated. A. Ø / Ø B. the / an C. a / the D. the / a 18. We have just bought ___ table. A. an antique oval oak dining B. an oval antique oak dining C. an oak antique oval dining D. a dining oval oak antique
40. 19. Despite the financial problems, she managed to ___ her fortune. A. hold on to B. catch up with C. keep back D. carry away 20. There is a small number involved, possibly ___ a hundred. A. as many as B. as little as C. as few as D. as much as 21. ''You must have had a very good time on holiday." "___, it was a disaster. Everything went wrong." A. By tradition B. On the condition C. In short D. On the contrary 22. She joined the local tennis club, ___ were at least 60. A. most of its members B. most whose members C. most of whose members D. most members 23. - John: “If only I hadn’t lent him all my money.” - Peter: “___ ” A. I’m afraid you will have to do it. B. All right. You will be OK. C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. Well, you did, so it’s no use crying over spilt milk. 24. . I was ___ the impression that I had paid you for the work you did for me. A. on B. for C. under D. with 25. He goes jogging every morning, rain or ___ . A. sun B. snow C. shine D. wind Question II: The passage below contains 7 mistakes( from 26 to 32). Recognise the mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (7 pts) Everyday life today is much more complicated than in the past. Even in our leisure time we have to make so many choices about what to do or even what to watch on TV. We are often spoilt for choice and this can leave us feel confused and dissatisfied. We all know that it is important to achieve a balance between work and play but many of us do not succeed. Instead, we put extra pressure in ourselves by trying to be as successful in our work life than in our personal life. Life in the past was much simpler as many people worked to meet their basic needs. Today, for many of us, our job is not just a way of make a living. For many, work plays an important role in our everyday life and gives us strong sense of personal fulfillment. What is more, we have become much more materialistic. Many people set them goals such as buying a new house or car and so we measure our success by the material things we own. Desiring these luxuries is that motivates us to work much harder than in the past, so in many ways we choose this way of life. Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) 33. Anna admitted (surprise)___ at the unexpected birthday party we gave her last night. 34. If you (work) ___late last night, how come I didn’t see your light on? 35.We’ll meet Linda at the corner. She (wait)___ when we arrive. 36. John’s score is the highest in the class. He (study) ___ very hard last week. 37. There (think) ___ to be disagreements among senior ministers. 38. "The maintenance people didn't remove the chairs from the ballroom."- "Don't worry. They (move) ___ them by the time the dance begins." 39 - 40. (Leave) ___ (uncover) ___, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather. 41. It is the recommendation of many psychologists that a learner (use) ___ mental images to associate words and remember names. 42. (refuse) ___ at the last time, she does not want to ask them. Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (8 pts) 43. He tried different ways of ___(SIMPLE) the grammar. 44. Low income and little administrative support make teachers ___ (HEART) with their profession. 45. The first time I tried out my new bike, I ___ (BALANCE) and fell off. 46. During the Civil War, the North’s population, ___(INDUSTRY) capacity, and financial resources were much greater than those of the South. 47. She is one of the greatest ___( PERFORM) to appear in this theater. 48. The evening was ___ (ENJOY) spent playing cards and tallking.
41. 49. All the ___ (OCCUPY) of the flats upstairs are expected to move out before the end of this month. 50. It was in the 1930s and 1940s that American ___ (CONSUME) culture was consolidated. PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts) FAMILY HISTORY In an age when technology is developing faster than ever before, many people are being attracted (51) ___the idea of looking back into the past. One way they can do this is by investigating their own family history. They can try to find out more about (52) ___ their families came from and what they did. This is now a fast-growing hobby, especially in countries with a (53) ___ short history, like Australia and the United State. It is (54) ___ thing to spend some time going through a book on family history and to take the (55) ___ to investigate your own family’s past. It is (56) ___ another to carry out the research work successfully. It is easy to set about it in a disorganised way and (57) ___ yourself many problems which could have been avoided with a little forward planning. If your own family stories tell you that you are (58) ___ with a famous character, whether hero or criminal, do not let this idea take over your research. Just (59) ___ it as an interesting possibility. A simple system for collecting and storing your information will be adequate to start with; a more complex one may only get in your (60) ___. The most important thing, though, is to get started. Who knows what you might find? 51. A. with B. to C. at D. for 52. A. which B. when C. where D. why 53. A. fairly B. greatly C. mostly D. widely 54. A. a B. one C. no D. some 55. A. idea B. plan C. purpose D. decision 56. A. quite B. just C. more D. even 57. A. produce B. cause C. build D. create 58. A. connected B. joined C. attached D. related 59. A. treat B. control C. contact D. direct 60. A. track B. path C. road D. way Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts) FLOWER POWER Flower grow everywhere in the world, but when people think of tulips, they think of the Netherlands. The Dutch have a saying: “Flowers love people”. If (61) ___ is true, then flowers really love the Dutch (62) ___ flowers have been cultivated in the Netherlands for hundreds of years. In fact, the flower industry has been so profitable that it has been boosting the Dutch economy (63)___ the seventeenth century. Recently, however, the Dutch flower (64)___ have been having difficulties in coping with the tough competition from (65) ___ . The Colombians, for instance, have taken the Dutch (66) ___ surprise. Their flowers are now (67) ___ demand all over the world due to the simplest (68) ___ that they are cheaper. Within a few short years, the Colombians have brought Holland’s (69)___ of the flower industry to an end. Despite this fact, the Netherlands is still in control of over sixty per cent of the world’s flower (70) ___ . Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts) In today’s culture, tattoos are very popular as a form of body decoration. As seen in their prevalence among rebellious teenagers, social outsiders, dangerous outlaws, and many other people, tattoos are viewed as luxurious fashion statements that possess a forbidden attraction -mainly as long as they remain unseen. However, some people get tattoos in order to identify themselves with certain groups, such as military units, fraternities, or even criminal organizations, like the Japanese yakuza. Tattoos have been used in this manner throughout history by many different cultures in the world. In fact, they have always been an important functional and symbolic feature in most tribal and ancient cultures, whether they were used for identification, worship, therapy, decoration, or in other rituals.
42. The earliest written records describing tattoo usage date back to Ancient Egypt, from where the practice spread to Crete, Greece, Persia, and Arabia. However, tribal cultures throughout northern Europe, the western hemisphere, and east Asia had been applying tattoos for several thousands of years before this, with people in Japan reportedly creating tattoos ten thousand years ago. One of the best pieces of evidence of this usage came from the excavation of Otzi the Ice Man, the Oldest naturally preserved body discovered in Europe. Dating back to 3300BC, this mummy had fifty-seven tattoos on its body, mostly located on the inside of the left knee, ankle, and legs. In China and Russia, naturally mummified bodies that are just as old have been found to bear tattoos in similar sports. Based on the location of these tattoos, some researchers speculate that they were part of a therapeutic treatment for bones. Ancient and tribal cultures used tattoos primarily for identification, though. A person’s tattoo would indicate their tribe, family, or social status. For instance, the Norse, the Danes, the Saxons, and other Germanic peoples used tattoos to identify their particular clans. The Maori in New Zealand used tattoos to indicate their social ranking. In many southeast Asian tribes, as well as in American tribes like the Inuit, women used tattoos to indicate that they were eligible for marriage or already married. Tattoos were also very common among warriors who displayed bravery or ferocity in combat. Chickasaw warriors distinguished themselves with tattoos, and the Dayak tribes used them to boast of the people they killed in battle. In later military usage, ancient Greek spies had tattoos that related their military ranks to each other. Originally, Roman soldiers did not have tattoos. However, after witnessing the fierceness of British tribes they fought, Roman soldiers began to get tattoos in order to emulate their enemy’s ferocity. 71. Which of the sentence below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? A. Tattoos are popular with rebellious people who like to remain unseen, like teenagers, outlaws, and outsiders. B. Tattoos have a rebellious attraction for many different kinds of people, but they usually must stay covered up. C. Tattoos are attractive to different kinds of people who want to display their rebellious instincts for everyone. D. Tattoos are such luxurious fashion statements that only a small number of people can get them, so they’re rarely seen. 72. In paragraph 1, the author mentions the modern use of tattoos as a form of identification in order to A. introduce their origins in older cultures B. explain their associations with criminals C. provide technical details on tattoos D. condemn them as fashion statements 73. The word "fraternities" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. markets B. universities C. societies D. stores 74. According to paragraph 2, some researchers believe that the tattoos found on mummies were used to A. mark them as slaves B. treat bone ailments C. begin their adulthood D. assist them in worship 75. Based on the information in paragraph 2, what can be inferred about the origins of tattoos? A. All ancient cultures copied the practice from Egypt. B. Otzi the Ice Man is the first to have ancient tattoos. C. It took thousands of years for tattoos to be used globally. D. Tattoos developed independently in different cultures. 76. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to A. warriors B. themselves C. tattoos D. tribes 77. The word "eligible" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by A. intelligent B. young enough C. trained D. qualified 78. According to paragraph 3, why did the Roman soldiers begin to get tattoos? A. They were inspired by the ferocity of their tattooed enemies. B. They wanted to boast of the enemies they killed. C. They needed to identify their military ranks. D. They used tattoos to treat their battle wounds. 79. According to paragraph 3, all of the following are listed as things identified by tattoos in tribal cultures EXCEPT A. marital status B. tribal affiliation C. social rank D. criminal status 80. Which of the following can be the best title of the passage? A. Tattoos – a rebellious attraction B. Tattoos on ancient mummies