Bộ đề minh họa kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh

Nội dung text: Bộ đề minh họa kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh

1. Đề dự bị Sở 07 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. repeats B. amuses C. attacks D. coughs Question 2: A. capable B. ancient C. angle D. danger Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. recommend B. fortunately C. entertain D. disappear Question 4: A. curriculum B. peninsula C. professional D. auditorium Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: She was anxious about the interview because she failed three interviews before. A B C D Question 6: Not until much later did she realize that her long-known partner had been lying her. A B C D Question 7: It is noisy enough in this room, so I would rather you stop shouting like that. ABCD Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: That Marie was able to retire at the age of 50 ___. A. so successful her business was B. so successful was her business C. her business was successful D. so was her successful business Question 9: The suspect confessed ___. A. the police his crime B. at his crime C. his crime the police D. his crime to the police Question 10: His advice, I would never have got the job ___. A. except B. but for C. apart from D. as for Question 11: More than a mile of roadway has been blocked with trees, stones and other debris, ___ the explosion. A. causing B. caused by C. which caused by D. which caused Question 12: I ___ the bell three times when he answered the door. A. would ring B. rang C. had rung D. was ringing Question 13: I'm thinking of changing my job because there are few ___ of promotion. A. prospects B. opportunities C. chances D.sources Question 14: Bill has a real ___ for looking after handicapped children. A. career B.post C. inspiration D.vocation Question 15: The death of Tran Lap, the leader of a Vietnamese famous rock band called Buc Tuong, is a great ___ to his fans. A. losing B. loss C. lose D. lost Question 16: I ___ an old friend of mine in the street this morning. We haven't seen Each other for ages. A. ran into B. ran out C. came over D. came round Question 17: Tom is ___ with his teacher because he didn't do any assignments. 1
2. A. in danger B. in the dark C. in hot water D. under control Question 18: These facts may be familiar ___ you. A. to B. with C. in D. at Question 19: The government is building a nuclear power ___ not far from here. A. works B. factory C. station D. industry Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: Mai and Lan are friends. Lan asks Mai about Mai's plan. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank. Lan: “Are you going to see the live show by Son Tung today?” Mai: “___”. A. Yes, I enjoyed it very much B. Maybe I'll be out C. Yes, I'm going to stay in D. I think so Question 21: Andy: How about coming to my English class tonight? Bob: ___. A. Sounds like fun! What time? B. English is my favourite subject. C. Don't worry. Thanks. D. Thanks. But what's the problem? Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The news should be put in the most noticeable place so that all the students can be well informed. A. suspicious B.popular C. easilyseen D. beautiful Question 23: I told her I understood what she was feeling as we were both after all in the same boat. A. in a similar take B. in a similar find C. in a similar situation D. in a similar case Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 24: He was arrested for his illicit drug trade in the police raid yesterday. A. legal B. irregular C. elicited D. secret Question 25: I eat lunch with a convivial group of my friends. A. unsociable B. large C. old D. lively Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: If their car hadn't broken down, these people would have come to the meeting in time. A. These people didn't come to the meeting because their car broke down. B. These people came to the meeting late because their car broke down. C. These people were late for the meeting because they didn't pick them up. D. If they had picked up these people, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting. Question 27: My friend had no difficulty in passing the driving test. A. My friend found it easy to pass the driving test. 2
3. B. My friend found it impossible to pass the driving test. C. My friend succeeded in passing the driving test. D. Passing the driving test shouldn't be too taxing for my friend. Question 28: “I'm very sorry for what happened but you will just have to accept the truth.” Laura said to her friend. A. Laura took the responsibility for what had happened. B. Laura didn't mean to tell the truth. C. Laura apologized to her friend for what had happened. D. Laura consoled her friend. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: I whispered. I didn't want anybody else to hear our conversation. A. I whispered so nobody could hear our conversation. B. I whispered so that somebody could not hear our conversation. C. I whispered so that nobody could not hear our conversation. D. I whispered so that nobody could hear our conversation. Question 30: The girl is talking to a man with a ponytail. She is my friend. A. The girl who is talking to a man with a ponytail is my friend. B. The girl, whom a man with a ponytail is talking to, is my friend. C. My friend is the girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail. D. The girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail, is my friend. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. GETTING TO THE ROOT OF BONSAI CRIME Bonsai trees have always been a source of great fascination to people. They are perfect miniatures, grown in pots small enough to sit on a windowsill. You have to keep reminding yourself that these frees are actually real and identical to their larger cousins in all (31) ___except their size. Rather like other small and perfectly-formed artifacts, bonsai trees command quite a high price in the marketplace and so it doesn't come as a great surprise to find that they also (32) ___the attention of thieves. It seems that quite a flourishing business has evolved, in which they are stolen from the homes of growers and collectors, then repotted and trimmed by unscrupulous dealers, to be sold on, at good prices, to (33) ___buyers. One of Britain's top collectors of bonsai trees, Paul Widdington, believes that he has found a solution, however. After losing his life's work, valued at Ê250,000, when burglars broke into his home one night, Paul decided to (34) ___the possibilities of electronically tagging the trees he bought as a replacement. This involves injecting a microchip the size of a grain of rice into the trunk of each tree. Each chip is a laser-etched with information which is stored in a central register held by the police. Paul is quite aware that this kind of data-tagging doesn't (35) ___thieves from stealing the trees in the first place, although it may increase the chances of getting them back. So he's also installing a security alarm system complete with infra-red detectors, in his home. Question 31: A. concerns B. respects C. regards D. matters Question 32: A. attract B. inquire C. appeal D. invite Question 33: A. unavoidable B. undemanding C. unconscious D. unsuspecting Question 34: A. look into B. set about C. try out D. go after 3
4. Question 35: A. preserve B. prevent C. prohibit D. protect Read the following passage and mark the letter A. B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. In ancient Greece, athletic festivals were very important and had strong religious associations. The Olympic athletic festival, held every four years in honour of Zeus, eventually lost its local character, became first a national event, and then, after the rules against foreign competitors had been abolished, international. No one knows exactly how far back the Olympic Games go, but some official records date from 776 B.C. The Games took place in August on the plain by Mount Olympus. Many thousands of spectators gathered from all parts of Greece, but no married woman was admitted even as a spectator. Slaves, women and dishonoured people were not allowed to compete. Records show that the evening of the third day was devoted to sacrificial offerings to the heroes of the day, and the fourth day, that of the full moon, was set aside as a holy day. On the sixth and last day all the victors were crowned with holy garlands of wild olive from a sacred wood. So great was the honour that the winner of the foot race gave his name to the year of his victory. How their results compared with modern standards, we unfortunately had no means of telling. After an uninterrupted history of almost 1,200 years, the Games were abolished in A. D. 394 because of their pagan origin. It was a great many years before there was another such international athletic gathering. The Greek institution was brought back into existence in 1896 and the first small meeting took place in Athens. After the 1908 London Olympics, success was re-established and nations sent their best representatives. Today, the Games are held in different countries in turn. The host country provides vast facilities, including a stadium, swimming pools and living accommodation, but competing countries pay their own athletes' expenses. Athletic contests are still the main feature, but now many more sports are represented, women compete, the ancient pentathlon, for example, has been modified into a more comprehensive test, and the marathonraces, initiated in 1896, are now a celebrated event. The Olympics start with the arrival in the stadium of a torch, lighted on Mount Olympus by the sun's rays. It is carried by a succession of runners to the stadium. The torch symbolizes the continuation of the ancient Greek athletic ideals, and it burns throughout the Games until the closing ceremony. Question 36: The first Olympic Games took place___. A. in the 17th century A.D B. certainly before 700 B.0 C. over three thousand years D. a thousand years ago Question 37: At the ancient Olympic Games, any competitor had to be ___. A. Greek B. male C. unmarried D. neither a slave nor a foreign Question 38: During the Games, on the evening before the moon was full, ___. A. sheep and cattle were sacrificed to Zeus B. all the victors were crowned with garlands C. olive branches were gathered from a sacred wood D. the heroes were honoured with sacrificed offerings Question 39: The word "pagan" (3rd paragraph) is closest in meaning to ___. A. Greek B. Olympic C. religious D. sporty Question 40: The continuity of the Olympic Games ___. A. was broken in the year A.D 1200 4
5. B. was broken in 1896 C. was interrupted for over 1,500 years D. was interrupted for almost 1,200 years Question 41: The word "continuation" (the last paragraph) is closest in meaning to ___. A. keep going B. a progress C. process D. marching Question 42: The modern Olympics compared with the ancient ones are ___. A. inspired by the same ideas B. more restricted in the variety of events C. different in every respect D. too much concerned with international rivalry Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. The technology of the North American colonies did not differ strikingly from that of Europe, but in one respect, the colonists enjoyed a great advantage. Especially by comparison with Britain, Americans had a wonderfully plentiful supply of wood. The first colonists did not, as many people imagine, find an entire continent covered by a climax forest. Even along the Atlantic seaboard, the forest was broken at many points. Nevertheless, all sorts of fine trees abounded, and through the early colonial period, those who pushed westward encountered new forests. By the end of the colonial era, the price of wood had risen slightly in eastern cities, but wood was still extremely abundant. The availability of wood brought advantages that have seldom been appreciated. Wood was a foundation of the economy. Houses and all manner of buildings were made of wood to a degree unknown in Britain. Secondly, wood was used as fuel for heating and cooking. Thirdly, it was used as the source of important industrial compounds, such as potash, an industrial alkali; charcoal, a component of gunpowder; and tannic acid, used for tanning leather. The supply of wood conferred advantages but had some negative aspects as well. Iron at that time was produced by heating iron ore with charcoal. Because Britain was so stripped of trees, she was unable to exploit her rich iron mines. But the American colonies had both iron ore and wood; iron production was encouraged and became successful. However, when Britain developed coke smelting, the Colonies did not follow suit because they had plenty of wood and besides, charcoal iron was stronger than coke iron. Coke smelting led to technologic innovations and was linked to the emergence of the Industrial Revolution. In the early nineteenth century, the former colonies lagged behind Britain in industrial development because their supply of wood led them to cling to charcoal iron. Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The advantages of using wood in the colonies. B. The effects of an abundance of wood on the colonies. C. The roots of the Industrial Revolution. D. The difference between charcoal iron and coke iron. Question 44: The word strikingly in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ___. A. realistically B. dramatically C. completely D. immediately Question 45: Which of the following is a common assumption about the forests of North America during the colonial period? A. They contained only a few types of trees. 5
6. B. They existed only along the Atlantic seaboard. C. They had little or no economic value. D. They covered the entire continent. Question 46: The word "abundant" in paragraph 3 is closest meaning to ___-. A. redundant B. sufficient C. insufficient D. plentiful Question 47: According to the passage, by the end of the colonial period, the price of wood in Eastern cities ___. A. rose quickly because wood was becoming so scarce. B. was much higher than it was in Britain. C. was slightly higher than in previous years. D. decreased rapidly because of lower demand for wood. Question 48:What can be inferred about houses in Britain during the period written about in the passage? A. They were more expensive than American houses. B. They were generally built with imported materials. C. They were typically smaller than homes in North America. D. They were usually built from materials other than wood. Question 49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a source of industrial compounds? A. potash B. charcoal C. gunpowder D. tannic acid Question 50: According to the passage, why was the use of coke smelting advantageous? A. It led to advances in technology. B. It was less expensive than wood smelting. C. It produced a stronger type of iron than wood smelting. D. It stimulated the demand for wood. Xem đầy đủ đỏp ỏn và lời giải chi tiết ở link dưới 288 Đề dự bị Sở 08 6
7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. compulsory B. comfortable C. accompany D. welcome Question 2: A. telecast B.telemetry C.telescope D. teleology Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. career B. prospect C.effort D.labour Question 4: A. company B.vacancy C. overtired D.estimate Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: Many places of history, scientific, cultural, or scenic importance have been designated A B C D national monuments. Question 6: Some underground water is enough safe to drink, but all the surface water must be A B C treated. D Question 7: When you are writing or speaking English, it is important to use language that both men A B C and women equally the same. D Markthe letter A, B,C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: I'm sorry I snapped at you like that, but I'm in a bad ___. A. mind B. mood C. mentality D. manner Question 9: The accident ___ was the mistake of the driver. A. which causes many people to die B. causing many people to die C. caused great human loss D. to cause many people die Question 10: All right, Johnny, it’s time you___ to bed. A. are going to go B. will be going C. would go D. went Question 11: There was ___ fuel in the car. Therefore, we had to stop midway to fill some. A. a few B. little C. few D. a little Question 12: My uncle wishes his son ___ much time when he grows up. A. hasn't wasted B. hadn't wasted C. wouldn't waste D. didn't waste Question 13: My relative ___ you met yesterday is an engineer. A. whose B. whom C. that D. B and C are correct Question 14: I ___ you don't make as much profit this year! A. assure B. challenge C. bet D. doubt Question 15: In future, cars will still be ___ us, but, instead of petrol, they will run ___anything from electricity to methane gas. A. for/ by B. for/ on C. with/ by D. with/ on 7
8. Question 16: Could you ___ a moment while I see if Peter is in his office? A. get on well B. get on C. hold on D. stand on Question 17: For me, the film didn't ___ all the enthusiastic publicity it received. A. come up B. live up to C. turn up to D. live up Question 18: Nowadays, most students use ___ calculators in their studies and examinations. A. electrical B. electric C. electrified D. electronic Question 19: Lan: "She seems ___ for the job". - Hoa: "Yes. Everybody thinks she's perfectly suited for it." A. ready-made B. home-made C. tailor-made D. self-made Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: Daisy: “Would you mind getting me a cup of coffee?” John: “___.” A. Cream and sugar, please B. It's my pleasure C. No, thanks D. I never drink coffee Question 21: Ann: I'm very sorry for letting you wait for so long. Bill: ___. A. Don't apologize. I've just arrived here. B. You're welcome. C. It's doesn't matter. Thank you. D. My pleasure. Don't worry about it. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: When you see your teacher approaching you, a slight wave to attract his attention is appropriate. A. catching sight of B. pointing at C. coming nearer to D. looking up to Question 23: Before he went on vacation, Peter left explicit instructions for the decoration of his office. A. clear B. colorful C. vague D. direct Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 24: A frightening number of illiterate students are graduating from college. A. inflexible B. able to read and write C. able to enjoy winter sports D. unable to pass an examination in reading and writing Question 25: In England, schooling is mandatory for all children from the age of 5 to 16. 8
9. A. voluntary B. obligatory C. advisory D. compulsory Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: My children are not old enough to read these novels. A. These novels are too old for my children to read. B. These novels are not new to my children's reading. C. My children are too young to read these novels. D. My children are completely new to these novels. Question 27: Bed, breakfast and dinner are included in the price. A. The price is inclusive of bed, breakfast and dinner. B. The price includes bed and breakfast except dinner. C. The price excludes bed, breakfast and dinner. D. Breakfast and dinner are included in the price as meals. Question 28: "All right, it's true. I was nervous," said the girl. A. The girl admitted to have been nervous. B. The girl decided that she had been nervous C. The girl denied being nervous. D. The girl admitted that she had been nervous. Mark the letter A, B, C or 1) to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: The winds were very strong. The trees were uprooted. A. So strong were the winds that the trees were uprooted. B. The winds were strong that the trees were uprooted. C. So were the winds strong that the trees were uprooted. D. So strong the winds were that the trees were uprooted. Question 30: She doesn't want to go to their party. We don't want to go either. A. Neither she nor we don't want to go to their party. B. Neither we nor she wants to go to their party. C. Either we or she doesn't want to go to their party. D. Neither we nor she want to go to their party. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. KEEPING FIT Bodies are made to move! They are not (31) ___ for sitting around in front of the television or reading magazines. Keeping fit doesn't mean have to be a super-athlete, and even (32) ___ exercise can give you a lot of fun. When you are fit and healthy, you will find you look better and feel better. You will develop more energy and self-confidence. Every time you move, you are exercising. The human body is designed to bend, stretch, run, jump and climb. (33) ___it does, the stronger and fitter it will become. Best of all, exercise is fun. It's what your body likes doing most-keeping on the move. Physical exercise is not only good for your body. People who take regular exercise are usually happier, more relaxed and more alert than people who sit around all day. Try an experiment-next time 9
10. you are in a bad mood, go for a walk or play a ball game in the park. See how much better you feel after an hour. A good (34) ___of achievement is yet another benefit of exercise. People feel good about themselves when they know they have improved their fitness. People who exercise regularly will tell you that they find they have more energy to enjoy life. So have (35) ___you'll soon see and feel the benefits. Question 31: A. planned B. designed C. programmed D. caused Question 32: A. a little B. a few C. little D. few Question 33: A. more and more B. the more C. more D. moreover Question 34: A. sense B. feel C. lot D. piece Question 35: A. a run B. a trial C. a go D. a start Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after the Earth was formed. Yet another three billions years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life's transition from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life. What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of the first terrestrial organisms is based on megafossils - relatively large specimens of essential whole plants and animals. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive megafossil record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization reflected the evolution of 10 modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this view, primitive vascular plants first colonized the margins of continental waters, followed by animals that fed on the plants, and lastly by the animals that preyed on the plant-eaters. Moreover, the megafossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified explosively near the boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400 million years ago. Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at sediments below this Silurian- Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by putting the rock in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence from sediments that were deposited near the shores of the ancient oceans - plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small animals. In many instances, the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter. Although they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils consist of the organic remains of the organism. These discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence ofpreviously unknown organisms, but have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multicellular organisms. Our view about the nature of the early plants and animal communities are now being revised. And with those revisions come new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms. Question 36: The word "drastic" is closest in meaning to ___. A. widespread B. radical C. progressive D. risky Question 37: According to the theory that the author calls "the traditional view", what was the first form of life to appear on land? A. Bacteria B. Meat-eating animals C. Plant-eating animals D. Vascular plants Question 38: According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago? 10
11. A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out. B.New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate. C.The megafossils were destroyed by floods. D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas. Question 39: The word "extracted" is closest in meaning to ___. A. located B. preserved C. removed D. studied Question 40: The word "they" refers to ___. A. rocks B. shores C. oceans D. specimens Question 41: Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils? A. The time estimate for the first appearance of the terrestrial life forms was revised. B. Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses. C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained. D. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed. Question 42: With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree? A. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself. B . The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved. C.New species have appeared at the same rate over the cause of the last 400 million years. D . The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about ages of fossils. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. The need for a surgical operation, especially an emergency operation, almost always comes as a severe shock to the patient and his family. Despite modern advances, most people still have an irrational fear of hospitals, and anaesthetics. Patients do not often believe they really need surgery - cutting into a part of the body as opposed to treatment with drugs. In the early years of the 20th century there was little specialization in surgery. A good surgeon was capable of performing almost every operation that had been advised up to that time. Today the situation is different. Operations are now being carried out that were not even dreamed of fifty years ago. The heart can be safely opened and its valves repaired. Clogged blood vessels can be cleaned out, and broken ones mended or replaced. A lung, the whole stomach, or even part of the brain can be removed and still permit the patient to live comfortable and satisfactory life. However, not every surgeon wants to, or is qualified to carry out every type of modern operation. The scope of surgery has increased remarkably in the past decades. Its safety has increased too. Deaths from most operations are about 20% of what they were in 1910 and surgery has been extended in many directions, for example to certain types of birth defects in new born babies, and, at the other end of the scale, to life saving operations for the octogenarian. The hospital stay after surgery has been shortened to as little as a week for most major operations. Most patients are out of bed on the day after an operation and may be back at work in two or three weeks. Many developments in modern surgery are almost incredible. They include replacement of damaged blood vessels with simulated ones made of plastic: the replacement of heart valves with plastic substitutes; the transplanting of tissues such as lens of the eye; the invention of the artificial kidney to clean the blood of poisons at regular intervals and the development of heart and lung machines to keep patients alive during very long operations. All these things open a hopeful vista for the future of surgery. 11
12. One of the most revolutionary areas of modem surgery is that of organ transplants. Until a few decades ago, no person, except an identical twin, was able to accept into his body the tissues of another person without reacting against them and eventually killing them. Recently, however, it has been discovered that with the use of X-rays and special drugs, it is possible to graft tissues from one person to another which will survive for periods of a year or more. Kidneys have been successfully transplanted between non-identical twins. Heart and lung transplants have also been reasonably successful. "Spare parts" surgery, the simple routine replacement of all worn-out organs by new ones, is still a dream of the future but surgery is ready for such miracles. In the meantime, you can be happy if your doctors say to you, "Yes, I think it is possible to operate on you for this condition." Question 43: Most people are afraid of being operated on ___. A. in spite of improvements in modem surgery B. because they think modem drugs are dangerous C. because they do not believe they need anaesthetics D. unless it is an emergency operation Question 44: Surgeons in the early 20th century, compared with modem ones ___. A. had less to learn about surgery B. needed more knowledge C. could perform every operation known today D. were more trusted by their patients Question 45: A patient can still live a comfortable life even after the removal of ___. A. his brain B. his lungs C.a major organ such as the stomach or one lung D. part of the stomach or the whole liver Question 46: The word "clogged" in the second paragraph is most likely to correspond to ___. A. clean B. blocked C. covered D. unwashed Question 47: Today, compared with 1910 ___. A. 20% fewer of all operation patients die B. 20% of all operation patients recover C. operation deaths have increased by 20% D. five times fewer patients die after being operated on Question 48: Some of the more astonishing innovations in modern surgery include ___. A. ear, nose and throat transplants B. valve less plastic hearts C. plastic heart valves D. leg transplants Question 49: Which of the following has the same meaning as "vista" in the fourth paragraph?' A. support B. prospect C. history D. visit Question 50: You can be happy if your surgeon can operate because it means ___. A. he thinks your condition may be incurable B. he is a good doctor C. he thinks you will survive D. you are getting better already 12
13. Xem đầy đủ đỏp ỏn và lời giải chi tiết ở link dưới Cảnh bỏo lừa đảo - Hiện nay cú một số cỏ nhõn, tổ chức đang mạo danh thương hiệu Tailieudoc.vn để trục lợi cỏc giỏo viờn nhẹ dạ cả tin. Đó cú rất nhiều giỏo viờn bị những đối tượng lừa đảo. - Hành vi của cỏc đối tượng này thường bỏn tài liệu với giỏ rẻ sau đú quịt tiền hoặc gửi tài liệu kộm chất lượng. Một số đối tượng lừa đảo điển hỡnh như: - Lưu Huỳnh Đức: Số điện thoại 0937.351.107 - Tailieugiangday.com: Số điện thoại 03338.222.55 Tất cả đề thi, tài liệu file word đều bắt nguồn từ website chớnh thống Tailieudoc.vn. Hóy giao dịch qua cỏc hotline đỏng tin cậy trờn website Tailieudoc.vn Rất mong cỏc giỏo viờn đủ tỉnh tỏo để khụng bị cỏc đối tượng trờn lợi dụng lừa đảo. 13
14. TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC VINH ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYấN Mụn thi: TIẾNG ANH ĐỀ THI LẦN 3 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phỳt, khụng kể thời gian phỏt đề Họ, tờn thớ sinh: Số bỏo danh: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. modernize B. diversity C. extensive D. material Question 2: A. necessary B. comfortable C. characterize D. oceanic Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 3: His lawyer thought Jack had a good chance of being acquitted at the trial, if no further evidence was found. A. charged of being faulty B. advised of appealing C. found guilty D. declared innocent Question 4: Recycling and disposal of wastes require sizable expenditure. In such situations, industries preferred to export their wastes to other countries. A. considerable B. plentiful C. trivial D. minimum Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 5: Dick is thanking Michelle for giving him the gift on his birthday. Dick: "Thanks for the nice gift you brought to me!” - Michelle: “___” A. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it. B. Not at all. C. Welcome! It’s very nice of you. D. All right! Do you know how much it costs? Question 6: Lisa is asking Charles for the permission to use his dictionary. Lisa: "Do you mind if I use your dictionary?" Charles:" ___." A. Yes, please do as you wish B. No, of course 14
15. C. No, go ahead D. Yes, let me check it Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 7: I could tell from the___look on his face that something strange ___. A. surprising/ had happened B. surprised/ happened C. surprising/ had been happening D. surprised/ would happen Question 8: I hope the soft skills course starts this term. We are all as keen as ___ to get going. A. coffee B. mustard C. a gigolo D. cornflakes Question 9: The lecturer asked one of his students ___ his assignment or not. A. whether he had finished B. whether he finishes C. if he finished D. if he has finished Question 10: It costs me a fortune, but I don’t regret___ a year travelling around the world. A. have spent B. spent C. to spend D. spending Question 11: Such ___ that he would stop at nothing. A. he was ambitious B. his ambition was C. ambitious was he D. was his ambition Question 12: Wood that has been specially treated is___regular wood. A. more than water resistant B. water resistant much more than C. as water resistant much more than D. much more water resistant than Question 13: The old man has recently purchased a___cottage on the outskirts of town. A. charming, Chinese 19th-century stone B. stone 19th-century charming Chinese C. 19th-century charming stone Chinese D. charming 19th-century Chinese stone Question 14: A golden handshake may have a ___ effect when one is dealt with the blow of redundancy. A. pillowing B. carpeting C. cushioning D. curtaining Question 15: In a formal debate, the same ___of persons speaks for each team, and both teams are granted an equal ___of time to make their argument. A. amount/number B. number/amount C. number/number D. amount/amount Question 16: The widely-publicized demonstration did not after all___. A. go off B. come off C. get on D. break out Question 17: According to ___National Weather Service, ___cyclones are ___areas of circulating winds that rotate counterclockwise in ___Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in___ Southern Hemisphere. A. ứ/ứ/the/the/the B. the/ứ/ứ/the/the C. the/ứ/the/ứ/ứ D. the/ứ/ứ/an/the 15
16. Question 18: I can’t believe Mr. Jackson sent us a check for $100,000. I wish ___get better acquainted with him the day he was there. A. we are able to B. we were able to C. we had been able to D. we had able to Question 19: ___had the restaurant opened ___people were flocking to eat there. A. Scarcely/when B. No sooner/when C. No sooner/then D. Hardly/that Question 20: Peter always takes a map with him ___ he loses his way. A. if B. in case C. so that D. so Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 21: The first time I met my friend’s parents, I was walking on eggshells because I knew their political views were very different from mine. A. was given many eggs B. had to be very cautious C. had a lot of pleasure D. was talking nervously Question 22: Albert Einstein is lauded as one of the greatest theoretical physicists of all time. A. dictated B. acclaimed C. described D. ordained Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 23: According to the latest news from the earthquake site, two-thirds of the city have been destroyed. A. to B. latest C. two-thirds D. have Question 24: Linda is the more capable of the two girls who has tried out for the part in the play. A. the more B. of the C. who has D. in the play Question 25: It was only after 1815 that a distinctive American literature began to appear with writers as Washington Irving and James Fenimore Cooper. A. It was B. that C. began D. as Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), originally known (26)___the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund, was created by the United Nations General Assembly on December 11th , 1946 to provide emergency food and healthcare to children and mothers in countries that had been devastated by World War II. The Polish physician Ludwik Rajchman is widely regarded as the (27)___of UNICEF and served as its first chairman from 1946 to 1950, when he had to flee the United States in the wake of McCarthyism. Rajchman is to this day the only person that served as UNICEF’s Chairman for longer than 2 years. On Rajchman’s suggestion, the American Maurice Pate was appointed 16
17. its first executive director, serving from 1947 until his death in 1965. In 1950, UNICEF’s mandate was extended to address the long-term needs of children and women in developing countries everywhere. In 1953, it (28)___a permanent part of the United Nations System, and the words "international" and "emergency" were dropped from the organization's name, though it retained the original acronym, "UNICEF". UNICEF (29)___ on contributions from governments and private donors. UNICEF’s total income for 2015 was more than five billion dollars. Governments contribute two-thirds of the organization’s resources. Private groups and individuals contribute the rest through national committees. It is estimated that 92 per cent of UNICEF revenue is distributed to program services. UNICEF’s programs emphasize developing community-level services to (30)___ the health and well-being of children. UNICEF was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965 and the Prince of Asturias Award of Concord in 2006. Question 26: A. for B. such as C. as D. like Question 27: A. founder B. descendant C. pioneer D. ancestor Question 28: A.becomes B. had become C. became D. becoming Question 29: A. stands B. concentrate C. focuses D. relies Question 30: A. provide B. widen C. promote D. increase Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was signed into law in 1990. This law extends civil rights protection to persons with disabilities in private sector employment, all public services, and in public accommodations, transportation and telecommunications. A person with a disability is defined as someone with a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits him or her in a major life activity, such as walking, talking, working, or self-care. A person with a disability may also be someone with a past record of such impairment, for example, someone who no longer has heart disease but is discriminated against because of that history. The ADA states that employers with fifteen or more employees may not refuse to hire or promote a person because of a disability if that person is qualified to perform the job. Also, the employer must make reasonable accommodations that will allow a person with a disability to perform essential functions of the job. All new vehicles purchased by public transit authorities must be accessible to people with disabilities. All rail stations must be made accessible, and at least one car per train in existing rail systems must be made accessible. It is illegal for public accommodations to exclude or refuse persons with disabilities. Public accommodations are businesses and services such as restaurants, hotels, grocery stores and parks. All new 17
18. buildings must be made accessible, and existing facilities must remove barriers if the removal can be accomplished without much difficulty or expense. The ADA also stipulates that companies offering telephone service to the general public must offer relay services to individuals who use telecommunications devices for the deaf, twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. Question 31: What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To describe discrimination against persons with disabilities B. To explain the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act C. To make suggestions for hiring persons with disabilities D. To discuss telecommunications devices for the deaf Question 32: According to the passage, all of the following are affected by the Americans with Disabilities Act EXCEPT___. A. someone who has difficulty walking B. a public transit authority C. an employer with fewer than fifteen employees D. a person with a past record of an impairment Question 33: The word “impairment” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___. A. disability B. violation C. aptitude D. danger Question 34: The author mentions grocery stores as an example of ___. A. public transit B. barriers C. private sector employment D. public accommodations Question 35: The word “facilities” in paragraph 4 refers to ___. A. barriers B. buildings C. rail stations D. disabilities Question 36: The author implies all of the following EXCEPT___. A. the ADA requires people with disabilities to pay for special accommodations B. the ADA is designed to protect the civil rights of many people C. public transportation must accommodate the needs of people with disabilities D. the ADA protects the rights of people with mental impairments Question 37: The word “stipulates” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to___. A. supposes B. admits C. states D. requests Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that___. A. restaurants can refuse service to people with disabilities B. every car of a train must be accessible to persons with disabilities C. the ADA is not well-liked by employers D. large companies may not discriminate against workers with disabilities 18
19. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 39: It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine. A. I have subscribed to that magazine for almost nine months. B. I have subscribed to that magazine almost nine months ago. C. I cancelled my subscription to that magazine almost nine months ago. D. I have subscribed to that magazine for almost nine months, but now I stopped. Question 40: There is an important difference between chimpanzees and humans. Humans walk on two legs. A. There is an important difference between chimpanzees and humans that walk on two legs. B. There are important differences between chimpanzees and humans that walk on two legs. C. Humans walk on two legs, so they are importantly different from chimpanzees. D. An important difference between chimpanzees and humans is that humans walk on two legs. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Birds have evolved many physical attributes that contribute to their flying ability. Wings are important, but adjustable tails, large hearts and light bones play critical roles. To fly, birds, like airplanes, move air across their wings. Wings are designed so that air above the wings is forced to move faster than air below the wing. This creates higher pressure under the wings, called lift, which pushes the bird up. Different wing types evolved for different ways of flying. Prolonged flight requires long wings and an ability to soar. Other birds need superior maneuverability. Finches and sparrows have short, broad wings. Faster birds, like hawks, have built-in spoilers that reduce turbulence while flying. This allows a steeper angle of attack without stalling. Tails have evolved for specialized use. The tail acts like a rudder helping birds steer. Birds brake by spreading out their tails as they land. This adaptation allows them to make sudden, controlled stops-an essential skill, since most birds need to land on individual branches or on prey. Flight takes muscle strength. If body builders has wings, they still could not flap hard enough to leave the ground. Birds have large, specialized hearts that beat much faster than the human heart and provide the necessary oxygen to the muscles. The breast muscle accounts for 15 percent of the bird’s body weight. On pigeons, it accounts for a third of their total body weight. Birds carry no excess baggage; they have hollow feathers and hollow bones with struts inside to maintain strength, like cross beams in a bridge. Birds fly to find prey, escape predators, and attract mates- in other words, to survive. 19
20. Question 41: What is the main idea of the passage? A. Wings are the most important physical attribute of birds. B. Different wing styles evolved for different types of flight. C. Birds have many specialized features that aid in their survival. D. Birds fly for many reasons. Question 42: According to the passage, what causes birds to rise when they start flying? A. Long wings with hollow feathers B. Higher air pressure below than above the wings C. Spreading out their tails D. Superior muscle strength Question 43: The phrase “finches and sparrows” in paragraph 2 refers to___. A. wings B. maneuvers C. ways of flying D. birds Question 44: According to the passage, what benefit comes from having built-in spoilers? A. an ability to fly faster B. a steeper angle of diving for prey C. prolonged fight D. superior maneuverability when climbing Question 45: What does the author imply about the body builders having wings? A. If they flapped their wings, they could fly a little. B. If they had wings, their muscles would be strong enough for flight. C. If they had wings, their hearts would still not be large for flight. D. Their wings would total 15 percent of their body weight. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: Despite his brilliance, he couldn’t solve the math puzzle. A. He couldn’t solve the math puzzle, so he was brilliant. B. He was brilliant, but he couldn’t solve the math puzzle. C. He couldn’t solve the math puzzle, though he wasn’t brilliant. D. He wasn’t brilliant, but he could solve the math puzzle. Question 47: Had the announcement been made earlier, more people would have attended the workshop. A. The workshop was held so late that few people attended it. B. The workshop was held earlier so that more people would attend. C. Fewer people attended the workshop because of the early announcement. D. Since the announcement was not made earlier, fewer people came to hear the workshop. Question 48: People think that Alexander Graham Bell invented the telephone in 1915. A. It is thought that Alexander Graham Bell had invented the telephone in 1915. B. Alexander Graham Bell is thought to invent the telephone in 1915. 20
21. C. The telephone thought to be invented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1915. D. Alexander Graham Bell is thought to have invented the telephone in 1915. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 49: A. biscuits B. vegetables C. magazines D. newspapers Question 50: A. channel B. choir C. chemical D. headache Xem đầy đủ đỏp ỏn và lời giải chi tiết ở link dưới SỞ GD & ĐT QUẢNG TRỊ ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYấN Mụn thi: TIẾNG ANH Lấ QUí ĐễN Thời gian làm bài: 60 phỳt, khụng kể thời gian phỏt đề ĐỀ THI LẦN 1 Họ, tờn thớ sinh: Số bỏo danh: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. I couldn’t decide what to eat. There was nothing ___ the menu that I liked. A. in B. on C. at D. within Question 2. There was a bank robbery in our neighborhood this morning. When the police showed up, the robbers ___. A. disappeared B. disappear C. had disappeared D. would disappear Question 3. It turned out that we ___ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours. A. hadn’t B. should have C. mustn’t have D. needn’t have Question 4. My parents lent me the money. ___, I couldn’t have afforded the trip. A. However B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. Unless Question 5. Cuts in the health service could have tragic ___ for patients. 21
22. A. effect B. results C. consequences D. damage Question 6. It is ___ practice to look at someone when they talk to you. A. common B. usual C. normal D. popular Question 7. Originally, the first European colleges consisted of groups of individuals ___ joined their efforts to study sciences, medicine, and law. A. who lived together and B. whose life together so C. living together and D. so as to live together and Question 8. I'll give you the phone number of my hotel so that you can reach me if anything ___. A. happen B. happened C. had happened D. happens Question 9. A quilt that looks ordinary ___ may become a work of abstract art when it is hung on a white wall. A. to be on bed B. lies on a bed C. to be lying in bed D. lying on a bed Question 10. Our planned visit to ___ United Kingdom fell through because we were unable to get the visas. A. a B. an C. the D. no article Question 11. Animals were first domesticated as a source of food and later ___ as a source of clothing and transportation. A. raised B. bought C. found D. tamed Question 12. Hector has been ___ of murdering the Japanese visitor. A. blamed B. charged C. accused D. arrested Question 13. ___ are that stock price will go up in the coming months. A. Chances B. Opportunities C. Possibilities D. Conditions Question 14. It was so ___ a victory that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it. A. surprised B. surprising C. surprise D. surprisedly Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 15. I am much worse than Josh is at physics. A. Josh is not quite as badly at physics as I am. B. Josh is no any better at physics than I am. C. Josh is not nearly as bad at physics as I am. D. Josh is the best at physics. Question 16. I'm sure it wasn't Mr. Phong you saw because he's on business in Ha Noi. A. It couldn't be Mr. Phong you saw because he's on business in Ha Noi. 22
23. B. You mustn't have seen Mr. Phong because he's on business in Ha Noi. C. It can't have been Mr. Phong you saw because he's on business in Ha Noi. D. Mr. Phong is on business in Ha Noi, so you might have seen him. Question 17. “Would anyone like to express an opinion on this matter?” said he. A. He asked everyone whether they would like to express an opinion on the matter. B. He asked everyone as if someone would like to express their opinion on the matter. C. He doubted that everyone would like to express their opinion on the matter. D. He wondered that anyone would like to express their opinion on the matter. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 18. The traffic accident caused a traffic jam. The traffic jam lasted 2 hours. A. The two–hour traffic jam was brought about by the traffic accident. B. It was the two–hour traffic jam that caused the traffic accident. C. There was a traffic accident caused by a two–hour traffic jam. D. If there weren’t that traffic accident, there wouldn’t be the two–hour traffic jam. Question 19. All possible means have been used to prevent air pollution. The sky is still not clear. A. Every possible means has been used to prevent air pollution so that the sky can be clearer. B. The sky is still not clear due to the fact that all possible means have been used to prevent air pollution. C. To prevent air pollution, every possible means has been used, and so the sky is still not clear. D. Every possible means has been used to prevent air pollution, yet the sky is still not clear. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The philosopher Aristotle said, “In poverty and other misfortunes of life, true friends are a sure refuge. They keep the young out of mischief; they comfort and aid the old in their weakness, and they incite those in the prime of life to noble deeds. “Growing up”, my mother always used to tell me “your friends are a reflection of you”. I did not quite understand this (20) ___ I started meeting individuals who kept, not so healthy friends in their lives and suddenly, as a young teenager, I learned to understand that the friends I keep in my life (21) ___ who I am and desire to be as a person and therefore I have learned to choose my friends wisely over the years. I do not care about the superficial (22) ___ such as looks, money, success or status but rather I emulate those (23) ___ bring laughter, joy, honesty and who can be there for me and also give me a firm kick in the butt when I need it. I always find it intriguing to meet friends of people I know because I can really get a sense of that person by the company they choose to (24) ___ in their life. 23
24. (Source: Question 20. A. until B. when C. since D. while Question 21. A. reflection B. reflect C. reflective D. reflectively Question 22. A. elements B. components C. attributes D. ingredients Question 23. A. who B. whom C. which D. where Question 24. A. have B. create C. make D. keep Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In English, at least three have been identified and described. Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a majority of the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level of formality. As such, these words and expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions are colloquial language. Slang, refers to words and expressions understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions and even slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both colloquial usage and slang are more common in speech than writing. Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech, but other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases, the majority never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their collective memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar objects and events. It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and situations in the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association among the subgroups and the majority population. Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as abstract labels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will be aware that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during appropriate situations, select and use three types of expressions. (Source: Adapted from Practice exercises for the TOEFL) Question 25. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage? A. Standard speech B. Idiomatic phrases C. Different types of vocabulary D. Dictionary usage 24
25. Question 26. How is slang defined by the author? A. Words and phrases accepted by the majority of formal usage. B. Words or phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries. C. Words or phrases that are understood by a restricted group of speakers. D. Words or phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal usage. Question 27. The word “obscurity” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ___. A. disappearance B. influence C. qualification D. tolerance Question 28. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ___. A. set of words B. slang phrases C. slang D. slang expressions Question 29. Which of the following is TRUE of standard usage? A. It is limited to written language. B. It is only understood by the upper classes. C. It can be used in formal or informal settings. D. It is constantly changing. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. There are three valid arguments to support the preservation of endangered species. An aesthetic justification contends that biodiversity contributes to the quality of life because many of the endangered plants and animals are particularly appreciated for their unique physical beauty. The aesthetic role of nature in all its diverse forms is reflected in the art and literature of every culture, attaining symbolic status in the spiritual life of many groups. According to the proponents of the aesthetic argument, people need nature in all its diverse and beautiful forms as part of the experience of the world. Another argument that has been put forward, especially by groups in the medical and pharmacological fields, is that of ecological self–interest. By preserving all species, we retain a balance of nature that is ultimately beneficial to humankind. Recent research on global ecosystems has been cited as evidence that every species contributes important or even essential functions that may be necessary to the survival of our own species. Some advocates of the ecological argument contend that important chemical compounds derived from rare plants may contain the key to a cure for one of the diseases currently threatening human beings. If we do not protect other species, then they cannot protect us. Apart from human advantage in both the aesthetic and ecological arguments, the proponents of a moral justification contend that all species have the right to exist, a viewpoint stated in the United Nations World Charter for Nature, created in 1982. Furthermore, if humankind views itself as the stewards of all the creatures on Earth, then it is incumbent upon human beings to protect them, and to ensure the continued existence of all species. Moral justification has been extended by a movement called "deep ecology", the members of which rank the biosphere higher than people because the continuation of life depends on this larger perspective. To carry their argument to its logical conclusion, all choices must be made for the biosphere, not for people. 25
26. (Source: Adapted from Reading Practice for the TOEFL) Question 30. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? A. The quality of life B. The preservation of species C. The beauty of the world D. The balance of nature Question 31. The word "perspective" in the third paragraph could best be replaced by ___. A. event B. view C. ideal D. truth Question 32. Which of the arguments supports animal rights? A. Self–interest argument B. Aesthetic justification C. Moral justification D. Ecological argument Question 33. The author mentions all the following as justifications for the protection of endangered species EXCEPT ___. A. the right to life implied by their existence B. the intrinsic value of the beauty of nature C. the control of pollution in the biosphere D. the natural compounds needed for medicines Question 34. The word "them" in the third paragraph refers to ___. A. stewards B. species C. human beings D. creatures Question 35. It can be inferred from the passage that the author ___. A. is a member of the "deep ecology" movement B. does not agree with ecological self–interest C. supports all of the arguments to protect species D. participated in drafting the Chapter for Nature Question 36. The word “advocates” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___. A. proponents B. advantages C. viewpoints D. opponents Question 37. What does the author mean by the statement in the first paragraph? "According to the proponents of the aesthetic argument, people need nature in all its diverse and beautiful forms as part of the experience of the world"? A. The world is experienced by nature in various forms that are equally beautiful. B. People are naturally attracted to beautiful forms father than to different ones. C. An appreciation of the Earth requires that people have an opportunity to enjoy the diversity and beauty of nature. D. Nature is beautiful because it provides varied experiences for people. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 38. My neighbors are really tight with money. They hate throwing away food, don’t eat at restaurant, and always try to find the best price. A. to spend money too easily B. to not like spending money 26
27. C. to be careful with money D. to save as much money as possible Question 39. His replies were inconsistent with his previous testimony. A. contradicted B. compatible C. enhanced D. incorporated Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 40. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years. A. comparatively B. absolutely C. relevantly D. almost Question 41. Tim is thinking of leaving his present job because his manager is always getting at him. A. hitting B. disturbing C. defending D. criticizing Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 42. Lora is talking to Maria about her failure at applying for a job. – Lora: “___” – Maria: “Never mind, better luck next time” A. I have a lot on my mind. B. I’ve broken your precious vase. C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work. D. I didn’t get the vacant position. Question 43. Anne is seeing Mary off at the airport. – Anne: “Don’t fail to look after yourself, Marry!” – Marry: “___” A. Of course, you are an adult. B. Oh, I knew about that. C. The same to you. D. Thanks, I will. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Question 44. She joined the company in 1995, and long before she was promoted to sales manager. A. joined B. long before C. was promoted D. sales Question 45. An ambitious person is committed to improve his or her status at work. A. is B. improve C. status D. at Question 46. A public spending programme is out of the question in the current economical climate. A. spending B. is C. the D. economical Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 47. A. mean B. dreamt C. heal D. release Question 48. A. conserved B. required C. explained D. increased Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 27
28. Question 49. A. procedure B. applicant C. syllabus D. recipe Question 50. A. protect B. direct C. access D. assess Xem đầy đủ đỏp ỏn và lời giải chi tiết ở link dưới TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYấN KHTN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019 ĐỀ THI LẦN 3 Mụn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phỳt, khụng kể thời gian phỏt đề Họ, tờn thớ sinh: Số bỏo danh: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following questions from 1 to 2. Question 1. After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released. A. innovative B. benevolent C. guilty D. naive Question 2. Affluent families find it easier to support their children financially. A. Wealthy B. Impoverished C. Privileged D. Well-off Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closet in meaning to each of the following questions from 3 to 5. Question 3. My father likes nothing better than fishing on a hot, summer day. A. My father doesn't like fishing on a hot, summer day. B. Although he likes fishing he doesn't want to do it on a hot, summer day. C. Fishing is my father's favourite enjoyment on a hot, summer day. D. Fishing is better than doing nothing on a hot, summer day. Question 4. If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies. A. I never go to the movies if I have work to do. B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work. C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies. D. Because I had to do so much work I couldn’t go to the movies. Question 5. It was Jane who pointed out the mistake to me. 28
29. A. It was Jane that I was owed the mistake to point out. B. It was Jane who only pointed the mistake out to me. C. It was the mistake that Jane asked me to attend. D. It was Jane who drew my attention to the mistake. Read the following passage and make the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 6 to 10. Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly- frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others. The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore. Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like. One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than conventionally grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food and buy only expensive organic foods instead. Question 6. The “welcome development” mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase in__ _. A. interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet C. the amount of health food grown in North American D. the number of consumers in North American Question 7. According to the first paragraph , which of the following is true about the terms “organic foods” ? A. It is accepted by most nutritionists. B. It has been used only in recent years. C. It has no fixed meaning. D. It is seldom used by consumers. 29
30. Question 8. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foodinstead of conventionally grown foods because___. A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods D. too many farmers will stop using conventional method to grow food crops Question 9. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grow foods are often ___. A. careless B. mistaken C. thrifty D. wealthy Question 10. What is the author’s attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods? A. Very enthusiastic B. Skeptical C. Neutral D. Somewhat favorable Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 11 to 24. Question 11. That honest man always speaks___ is true even if it is bitter. A. that it B. that C. what D. which Question 12. I must have been___ when you called. I did not hear the phone. A. sleepy B. asleep C. slept D. sleep Question 13. I am going to walk in the park. Would you like to___ me company? A. follow B. help C. hold D. keep Question 14. Prices at hotels are___ to change on seasonal demand. A. plain B. public C. subject D. general Question 15. The woman was convicted and sentenced___ six months in prison. A. for B. on C. with D. to Question 16. Nothing that I can see___ what you have described. A. comapres B. relates C. resembles D. consists Question 17. If the service isn’t up to standard, I think you have___ right to complain. A. all B. each C. much D. every Question 18. My uncle pulled a few___ and got me a job in the company he works. A. ropes B. strings C. threads D. chords Question 19. ___, he was unharmed after being hit by the lightning. A. Consequently B. Finally C. Cautiously D. Miraculously Question 20. I think it’s a bit ___ to hope that we can beat them easily. They are much younger and better. 30
31. A. reality B. really C. realised D. unreal Question 21. The old man is___ of walking 100 meters by himself. A. inexperienced B. incapable C. unable D. immature Question 22. I ___ an important phone call from America. Could you tell me when it comes? A. had expected B. have been expecting C. expected D. am expecting Question 23. Why are you whispering to each other? If you have something important ___ say it aloud to all of us. A. to say B. said C. saying D. say Question 24. You look so tired! You ___ out too late last night. A. had to be B. should have been C. had been D. must have been Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions from 25 to 26. Question 25. “ ?” “Well, I’ll have the trout, she the veal, please.” A. Have you ordered B. What do you want C. Are you ready to order D. Is everything ordered Question 26. Customer: Can I have a look at that pullover, please? - Salesgirl: A. It’s much cheaper. B. Which one? This one? C. Sorry, it’s out of stock. D. Can I help you? Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in menaing to the underlined words in each of the following questions from 27 to 28. Question 27. The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favourite films. A. contests B. economics C. advertisements D. businesses Question 28. As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the island. A. palnts and animals B. fruits and vegetables C. flowers and trees D. moutains and forests Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 29 to 30. Question 29. A. busy B. lettuce C. bury D. minute Question 30. A. chorus B. duchess C. duke D. stomach Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 31 to 32. Question 31. A. influential B. opportunity C. temperament D. expectation 31
32. Question 32. A. government B. employment C. refusal D. redundant Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 33 to 35. Question 33. The more frequent you exercise, the greater physical endurance you will have. A. frequent B. exercise C. greater D. will have Question 34. As a child grows on, its physical health is affected by many elements in the air, water and food. A. is affected B. on C. by D. many elements Question 35. One of the keys to the survival of animals is its ability to adapt to changes in the environment. A. the keys B. animals C. adapt to D. its ability Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 40. KEEPING FIT Bodies are made to move! They are not (36) ___ for sitting around in front of the television or reading magazines. Keeping fit doesn't (37) ___ you have to be a super-athlete, and even (38) ___ exercise can give you a lot of fun. When you are fit and healthy, you will find you look better and feel better. You will develop more energy and self-confidence. Every time you move, you are exercising. The human body is designed to bend, stretch, run, jump and climb. (39) ___ it does, the stronger and fitter it will become. Best of all; exercise is fun. It's what your body likes doing most - keeping on the (40) ___. Question 36. A. planned B. designed C. programmed D. caused Question 37. A. involve B. require C. reveal D. mean Question 38. A. a little B. a few C. little D. few Question 39. A. More and more B. The more C. More D. Moreover Question 40. A. increase B. move C. develop D. decrease Read the following passage and make the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 48. Scientists have discovered the bones of what may be the largest meat-eating dinosaur ever to walk the earth. The discovery was made by a team of researchers from Argentina and North America in Patagonia, a desert on the eastern slopes of the Andes in South America. Besides the interesting fact that the dinosaur was huge and horrifying, it is even more astounding that the bones of a number of the dinosaurs were found together. This discovery challenges the prior theory that the biggest meat-eaters 32
33. lived as loners and instead indicates that they may have lived and hunted in packs. The Tyrannosaurus Rex lived in North America and was believed to hunt and live alone. The newly discovered meat-eater appears to be related to the Giganotosaurus family, being as closely related to it as a fox would be to a dog. It is actually not of the same family at all as the Tyrannosaurus Rex, being as different from it as a cat is from a dog. The fossilized remains indicate that the animals lived about 100 million years ago. With needle- shaped noses and razor sharp teeth, they were larger than the Tyrannosaurus Rex, although their legs were slightly shorter, and their jaws were designed to be better able to dissect their prey quickly and precisely. Question 41. The author states that the newly discovered dinosaur remains are evidence that it was the largest . A. dinosaur ever B. herbivorous dinosaur C. carnivorous dinosaur D. South American dinosaur Question 42. The word Besides in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to . A. in spite of B. mostly C. although D. in addition to Question 43. The word horrifying in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to . A. interesting B. frightening C. large D. fast Question 44. The word astounding in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to . A. pleasing B. displeasing C. terrifying D. surprising Question 45. The author implies that the most interesting fact about the find is that this dinosaur . A. was found in the Andes B. had a powerful jaw and sharp teeth C. was larger than Tyrannosaurus Rex D. lived and hunted with others Question 46. The passage indicates that prior to this discovery scientists believed that . A. meat-eating dinosaurs were small in stature B. there were no meat-eating dinosaurs in the Andes C. Tyrannosaurus Rex lived in the Andes D. meat-eating dinosaurs lived alone Question 47. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to . A. Giganotosaurus family B. dog C. newly discovered meat – eater D. Relationship Question 48. The word “prey” in the last sentence of the passage is closet in meaning to . A. attacker B. dinosaurs C. enemy D. victim Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 33
34. Question 49. They drove fifteen miles off the main roads. Also, they had nothing to eat for a day. A. They drove fifteen miles off the main road until they had something to eat for the day. B. They neither drove fifteen miles off the main road nor had anything to eat for the day. C. Not only did they drive fifteen miles off the main road, they also had nothing to eat for the day. D. Driving fifteen miles off the main road, they eventually had something to eat for the day. Question 50. Everyone was watching the little dog. They were greatly amused at it. A. The little dog was greatly amused by the way everyone was watching it. B. Everyone felt great and amused when the little dog was watching them. C. The little dog was watching everyone with great amusement. D. Everyone was greatly amused at the little dog they were watching. Xem đầy đủ đỏp ỏn và lời giải chi tiết ở link dưới 34